Shusha
Gold Member
- Dec 14, 2015
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Palestine is a state that has been occupied since its inception.
So you keep asserting. Sadly, you are lacking any reasoned arguments to support your claim.
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Palestine is a state that has been occupied since its inception.
Israel's so called sovereignty is what we are debating.You can violate the right to sovereignty but you cannot negate it.
Then stop trying to negate Israeli sovereignty.
Israel never had any land to cede.
Israel's so called sovereignty is what we are debating.
Israel never had any land to cede.
I have already shown that Palestine was a state after the Treaty of Lausanne. Britain occupied Palestine before the Treaty of Lausanne and continued to occupy it until 1948. The UN armistice Agreements divided Palestine into three areas of occupation that lasted until 1967 when Israel occupied all of Palestine.Palestine is a state that has been occupied since its inception.
So you keep asserting. Sadly, you are lacking any reasoned arguments to support your claim.
What is there to argue if Israel has no land?Israel never had any land to cede.
If this is your argument, you need to address my points 2 and 3. Not 6.
The British Mandate had no sovereignty.2. Territory under the sovereignty of the British Mandate,
You have not offered anything for it.Israel's so called sovereignty is what we are debating.
And you have yet to provide even a single reasonable argument against Israel's sovereignty.
So, when did Palestine cede land to Israel?Israel never had any land to cede.
On the contrary, as you have demonstrated Palestine (now named Israel) became a State in 1924. The only government since the British removed their trust, has been the Israeli government. Therefore, all the land is Israeli land. Keep up.
I have already shown that Palestine was a state after the Treaty of Lausanne. Britain occupied Palestine before the Treaty of Lausanne and continued to occupy it until 1948. The UN armistice Agreements divided Palestine into three areas of occupation that lasted until 1967 when Israel occupied all of Palestine.Palestine is a state that has been occupied since its inception.
So you keep asserting. Sadly, you are lacking any reasoned arguments to support your claim.
...when Israel occupied all of Palestine.
I have already shown that Palestine was a state after the Treaty of Lausanne.
What is there to argue if Israel has no land?
I have already asked you that and you ducked the question.What is there to argue if Israel has no land?
Don't be silly. Of course Israel has land.
You are trying to prove that her possession of land is not legal. And not especially doing a good job of it.
I did to. You never responded to that post.I have already shown that Palestine was a state after the Treaty of Lausanne.
You most certainly have not. You have claimed it. But have absolutely no supporting argument to make it so.
I did to. You never responded to that post.I have already shown that Palestine was a state after the Treaty of Lausanne.
You most certainly have not. You have claimed it. But have absolutely no supporting argument to make it so.
(COMMENT)You can violate the right to sovereignty but you cannot negate it.Anyone who uses terms like "occupied territory", by implication, agrees with me.)
(COMMENT)The Muslims and Christians in 1949 had no resources, 2/3s of their population were either under Jew rule or were war refugees that had lost their homes, land and thus livelihoods with allies whose combined GDP was less than the wealth of the Rothschild's, thus unable to compete with the financing that the U.S., Britain and world Jewry contributed to the colonial project.
The European Jew colonial invader and now occupier created the conditions that native Muslim and Christian Palestinians have to live under today. Quit spreading vile, racist lies.