Toro
Diamond Member
That's not an answer. If you've heard this every time you "speak to a socialist, environmentalist or watched TV," you'd think you'd have a good answer by now.
The natives occupied this land before there were Europeans. If property rights are a universal, timeless, inalienable right, Europeans took that land from the natives by force, not by rule of law. The natives did not sell the land to us. We took it.
So how do you reconcile taking land with the universal, timeless, inalienable right to own property?
What does our treatment of the native Americans have to do with whether states can secede from the union?
I never mentioned anything about secession.