Was Rand Paul talking about James Hodgkinson?

Rand Paul is wrong as usual – which comes as no surprise.

There is nothing in the text, history, or case law of the Constitution that indicates the Second Amendment ‘trumps’ the First.

There is nothing in the text, history, or case law of the Second Amendment that indicates when government becomes ‘tyrannical,’ that the will of the majority of the people might be disregarded, and government ‘overthrown’ through ‘force of arms’ in violation of the will of the majority of the people.

The American people have the First Amendment right to petition the government for a redress of grievances through either the political or judicial process; and neither process can be abridged by a minority of citizens who incorrectly and subjectively perceive the government to have become ‘tyrannical.’

The Second Amendment acknowledges the fundamental right of the people to possess and carry firearms pursuant to lawful self-defense, not seek to ‘overthrow’ a government lawfully put into place at the behest of the people.
 
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If James Hodgkinson believed that he was firing shots against government tyranny, is he excused? If not, why not?

If Rand Paul (and many others) believe what he said, how do we determine who is fighting tyranny and who is a hyper-partisan nutjob?

Or is his entire statement just nonsense to begin with?

Consider also (not a second amendment issue), what if the person isn't shooting he is destroying property instead because he/she believes the government is against the people? Are burning cars and broken storefront windows fight-back against the government legitimate?

What about seizing tea from a ship and destroying it?
Those might be legitimate acts if the First Amendment didn’t exist, and if there was no codified right of the people to petition the government for a redress of grievances through the political or judicial process.

Of course, that’s not the case, where such acts cannot be legally sanctioned.
 

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