"To lay taxes to provide for the general welfare of the U.S." that is to say "to lay taxes for the purpose of providing for the general welfare." For the laying of taxes is the power and the general welfare the purpose for which the power is to be exercised. They are not to lay taxes ad libitum for any purpose they please; but only to pay the debts or provide for the welfare of the Union. In like manner they are not to do anything they please to provide for the general welfare, but only to lay taxes for that purpose. To consider the latter phrase, not as describing the purpose of the first, but as giving a distinct and independent power to do any act they please, which might be for the good of the Union, would render all the preceding and subsequent enumerations of power completely useless. It would reduce the whole instrument to a single phrase, that of instituting a Congress with power to do whatever would be for the good of the U.S. and as they would be the sole judges of the good or evil, it would be also a power to do whatever evil they pleased. It is an established rule of construction, where a phrase will bear either of two meanings, to give it that which will allow some meaning to the other parts of the instrument, and not that which would render all the others useless. Certainly no such universal power was meant to be given them. Thomas Jefferson
While it is true that since 1936 in the case I have posted the Hamiltion view of general welfare is the one that most look to as their legal precedent on this matter and not the Madison view. So to make a blanket statement that there is no existing legal precedent in fact there is precedent in law on the Madison view in Bailey v. Drexel but since the FDR threat to pack the courts and as Justice Roberts rightly pointed out the 1936 case was more to save the courts from FDR rather than law. As for the assertion that the general welfare clause is subject to interpretation by congress, the framers of the constitution seem to disagree with that point especially Madison and Jefferson. If the notion is that congress makes a law and the constitutionality of that law is then heard in the courts then the poster is quite correct and I tend to believe that if a healthcare bill is passed with a public option that is exactly where it it headed if it has mandates in it. It should be an interesting case none the less , the recent passage in both houses of the Arizona healthcare freedom act that contradicts this healthcare bill may be a place where it will all start who knows.
General welfare may be cited most often in these debates, but if it were in fact to go to court the main legal argument for constitutionality would be commerce clause. And it would in fact be found constitutional uinder that broad heading. I don't like the breadth of modern commerce clause theory, I'm (obviously) no originalist but IMO it does give too much power to Congress and the Federal government. Be that as it may, reality is.
One question I'm really interested in hearing answered is, if you (not just you specifically but "you" in general) are of the opinion the Federal government does not have the authority to administer health insurance or health care, would the States if they chose to do so?