FA_Q2
Gold Member
This I can understand and agree with in the same manner that I back voter ID laws. I am, however, having a tough time reconciling the idea with this:Background checks are a sensible alternative to banning that doesn't flirt with infringing on the 2nd Amendment. I'll never understand what anybody has against them.
As for a basic demonstration of knowledge of firearms, that works as well, and fall right in line with the "well-regulated militia" end of the 2nd.
Those two things together are positive way of dealing with the issue and makes a hell of a lot more sense than banning.
I'm not comfortable with the state tracking the weapon sales of individuals. If our concern is whether a person is qualified to buy a gun, then license the person. But per weapon checks and registration is bound to lead to abuse, think the corrupt Eric Holder, the IRS, and the attacks on the Tea Party.
I don't want criminals to buy guns or the mentally ill, so a license showing that a person is legally qualified to purchase a weapon makes sense, but it's a "go / no go" test - the involvement of the government ends at the license - if a person has it, what they buy is their own business.
I hope to see the debate between 14 and Jimmy continue because that is an interesting point that 14 used.Agreed.We are having a respectful and meaningful discussion so far. I hope we are able to keep it up and not get insulting such as what usually happens on USMB.Registration of guns is -not- a necessary component to the exercise of the right to arms, and may - indeed, almost always is - meaningfully exercised without it.
Simiarly, the exercise of the right to arms may be meaningfully exercised, ad was so exercised for a LONG period of time - without regard to the possibility of those who are not legally allowed to have guns to get them.
Incorrect. The right to vote was indeed exercised, but NOT meaningfully, as you point out by the fact that gangs, etc, were able to vote multiple times. The fact that people still voted and people were elected does not mean that right was meaningfully exercised, it instead means that the right was not sufficiently protected by the state, and that the rights of the legit voters were diminished -- recall that the reason for voter registration is to proect the rights of the voters, and nothing else.
Gun registration does not protect the rights of those who exercise the right to arms, and so its constitutional permissibility cannot soundly follow from the example set by the permissibility of voter registration. Again, the difference in in the inherent nature of the rights; the fact that felons might sill be able to get guns in no way diminishes the exercise of the right by those who have it, whereas the fact that felons might still be bale to vote diminishes the exercise of the right who have it.
True, but a meaningless distinction. Libel and slander are not prtected by the 1st because they cause harm; yelling fire in a theater is not protected by the 1st because it places people ina condition of clear, pesent and immediate danger, and the dissemination of military secrets threatens our national security, possibly even creating an existential threat far greater than that of firearms -- and yet, the state cannot constitutionally restrain your exercise of your right to free speech until it determines that it contains any of these things and therefore violatwes the law.There can be no comparison between the 1st and 2nd Amendments when it comes to prior restraint. They are noticeably different rights. First, a string of offensive words cannot mow down a room full of people.
Weak. -All- rights may be regulated (see above); the only question is if that regulation creates an infringement (almost all do) and if that infringment is constitutionally permissible. The question here is if prior restraint, constitutionally impermissible with regard to the 1st amendment, while constitutionally permissible with regard to voting rights, is permissible in regards to the 2nd.Second, the wording of the 2nd Amendment allows for regulation, where the 1st does not.
This gets us back to:
If you accept the premise of prior restraint, then you need to accept that the same premise applies to all rights, or soundy explain why it applies to some and not to others.
Or, put otherwise:
What maked the 2nd so different that it does not share the same protection aginst prior restraint as the first?