Yes, federal district judges do have jurisdiction over cases involving violations of federal law and the Constitution--that’s black-letter law under 28 U.S. Code § 1331, which grants district courts jurisdiction over “all civil actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States.”
I suspect you are basing your opinion over a recent ruling by SCOTUS on Boasberg. Well, the Supreme Court's recent ruling in the Boasberg case was not about limiting that general jurisdiction. It was a procedural ruling, holding that challenges to removal under the Alien Enemies Act must be filed in the jurisdiction where the noncitizen is detained--not in the District of Columbia. That’s a venue-specific limitation, not a global denial of judicial authority.
So, to clarify my earlier statement:
A federal judge has jurisdiction over violations of federal law and the Constitution--provided the case is properly before the court in terms of venue, standing, and procedural posture.
The Supreme Court did not disagree with that general principle. It merely enforced where such challenges must be filed--not whether they can be filed at all.