P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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Any 1948 map will do.Well, the supposed illegality in Israel's settlements arises from (mis)interprerations GCIV Article 49 claiming that an Occupying Power must not transfer its citizens from its own territory to another territory. You MUST agree that this can not apply to Palestine, since Palestine is all one territory.Where, inside Palestine, would any Israeli settlement be legal?
Interesting. Israel crossed that border from where? Where was the State of Israel established? Where was its territory? Who were its citizens? What was their government? On what date did they "cross the border"?Israel crossed that border in 1948.
If you want to argue that ALL Israeli (Jewish) settlements are illegal, you must be using another point of international law to make this claim. Feel free to name what it is.Good question. Do you have a 1948 map of Israel?Where was its territory?
Before or after the LEGAL U.N. Resolution??
“ Palestine “ was never a country; it was a territory
Another unsubstantiated Israeli talking point.