Richard-H
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- Aug 19, 2008
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Before 1917 the debt had been permanently limited and every single new bond sale had to be individually approved by Congress. 31 USC § 3101 and 31 USC § 3101A upped it to the current $16.8T. Please point out which wording in the current law is specifically creating a situation for illegal non-payment that did not already exist....the debt limit law (created in 1917) creates a situation where congress can choose not to allow payment of the debt...
In the mean time we'll just work with the understanding that nobody can post it because it's simply not there.
Just to be clear, I believe the argument is that Article I authorizes Congress to borrow for the account of the United States. It says nothing about repayment of that debt. Theoretically there was nothing prior to the Fourteenth Amendment that that would prevent Congress from repudiating the public debt as a number of states have done (A friend of mine represented the British bondholders in negotiations of the State of Mississippi's repudiate debt of guaranteed 1820's railroad bonds a few years ago. The state is still blacklisted by Lloyds'!).
Clearly the main purpose of the Fourteenth Amendment was not concerning the debt, but Section 2 was inserted to prevent Southern states re-entering the Union from ever abrogating obligations for Union pensions or granting such pensions to Confederate veterans. So although the language was turgid, the intent was clear, once appropriated, funds to meet obligations and claims on the United States must be met regardless of actions of a subsequent Congress.
Whether or not this implies a general requirement that the public debt of the United States must be repaid is the issue, and there is an argument both for and against. In essence the question is "Can Congress by legislation repudiate the public debt?" If it were a matter of law, the answer would be obvious, of course Congress may by law undo any law. But if the Fourteenth Amendment makes such a law unconstitutional, Congress has no such authority. By definition a law cannot be illegal, but it can be unconstitutional.
Were the Supreme Court to rule that the Fourteenth Amendment requires the honoring of the public debt by Congress, and by extension the act of appropriating money in accord with Article I is sufficient to require payment, the power of Congress to repudiate appropriations already expended but unpaid and the power to repudiate the debt would both be unconstitutional, and the Executive would have a constitutional duty to ignore any law having the effect of repudiation, and payment would become automatic, with the Executive to determine the mechanism for payment.
This situation would be the exception to the rule that a government is different financially from a household or business. There would be no default provision for the federal government. All of those who beat their chest proclaiming the sanctity of living within the government's means would be forced to manage the deficit and debt limit to avoid default or abdicate the right to do so to the Executive. The argument leaves conservatives hoist by their own petard.
The questions that you ask were already answered in a 1935 SCOTUS decision. It's discussed about 3/4 into this article:
14th Amendment: Democratic Senators See Debt Ceiling As Unconstitutional
Basically it says that Congress is obliged to pay all debts.