oldfart
Older than dirt
WONK WARNING: While a graduate degree in economics is not required to follow this discussion, it doesn't hurt. A familiarity with history of economic thought would be a good idea too. If this is going to give you indigestion, I recommend skipping this thread. If you want to plow on, I'll try to make it as readable as possible. I also think it is worth the effort at the end! [/alert]
I ran across a discussion of a golden oldie which may be making a comeback. In the theory of firm behavior and monopoly is the concept of "monopoly rents". Bear with me a bit because this needs some background.
The granddaddy of modern production functions is that developed by Charles Cobb and Paul Douglas during 19271947. They tested it statistically on historical data to come up with the values for the main variables, and along with Leontieff input-output models this is the basis of virtually all work in the field today. And it can't be called Keynesian because it predates Keynesian theory by almost a decade.
The Cobb-Douglas models posits a simple economy where there are two factors of production, labor and capital, which are used to produce a single output (affectionately called "schmoos" in the literature) which is used to produce everything else. So we have a labor market, a capital market, multiple product markets which have schmoos as the only input, and of course a market for schmoos. This is about as simple as you can get in a production function; David Ricardo had three factors of production in his (land, labor, and capital). Hang on to the name Ricardo; you need it later.
The interesting application of the Cobb-Douglas model comes when you compare what happens with it when the product markets are perfectly competitive against what happens when the product markets are monopolies. With a bunch of simplifying assumptions, it turns out that the share of national product going to labor decreases as markets become more monopolistic (no surprise there). But the share going to capital also decreases (i.e. the rate of return on capital investment also decreases). This is not a good thing. Where did the missing portion go?
Bring back David Ricardo. In his model labor received wages, capital received profits, and owners of land received rents. In Ricardo's system, land and rents were the bad guy. Since the supply of land was fixed and ownership was exogenous to the economic system (owners of raw land didn't have to really do anything other than breath and accept money), over time the share of national income going to this "unproductive" class increased. Thomas Malthus extended this analysis to population dynamics and ended up with inevitable poverty for the workers as they kept reproducing as wage rates fell and rentiers became wealthier. If this sounds Marxist, remember that this is a century before Marx. Marx was a Ricardian.
So what does Ricardian rent theory have to do with Cobb-Douglas production functions? Well both are examples of monopoly rents. Classic Ricardian rents are created by the scarcity of land and the independence of land ownership from economic function. With Cobb-Douglas profits are divided into "normal profits" which are returns to capital and "monopoly profits" which are returns to monopoly power. In a purely competitive market, monopoly rents are zero.
I'm finessing another issue here. Monetary theory posits another element, financial capital which has a return called interest. This introduces concepts of time preference and financial (capital) markets. Businesses use financial capital to purchase physical capital. This results in interest being the share of national income going to the owners of financial capital, and because financial markets are assumed to be highly competitive and efficient, the projected rate of return on financial capital should be the same as the projected rate of return on physical capital. In other words, a financial capitalist should get the same return investing his money in financial instruments as he would investing in plant and equipment. This leaves the share of profits to be a "pure" return to entrepreneurship or management skill. So the final model would have income shares going to land (rent), labor (wages), financial capital (interest), management skill (profit), and monopoly power (monopoly rents).
So where does all this lead us? The surmise is that technological change is increasing the role of intellectual property which is a legal monopoly in many cases. Patent and trademark law are basically ways to establish and control legal monopolies. It's also argued that more mundane factors (like "too big to fail") are causing concentration in many markets. And as companies like Apple emerge with virtually no connection to physical production, and the marginal cost of much of what they sell is zero (what really is the marginal cost of the millionth copy of downloaded software?), they charge whatever the market will bear. To them all costs are sunk costs incurred before there is any income (think R & D) and the connection between income and future investment is conjecture. This is monopoly rent.
The reasoning goes that a Cobb-Douglas model in this set of circumstances would predict a falling share of national income to wages, financial capital, and profits and an increasing share to monopoly (market) power. Branding, advertising, and intellectual property litigation, as well as lobbying regulatory agencies and legislatures, come to the fore replacing hiring, training, financing, and investing in physical capital as the means of generating success in business. International competitiveness decreases as income inequality increases. Production, employment, raw resource prices, and national income all decrease or stagnate. Sound familiar?
So is this an adequate explanation of what is happening today? And if so, what can be done to reverse it? What say you?
I ran across a discussion of a golden oldie which may be making a comeback. In the theory of firm behavior and monopoly is the concept of "monopoly rents". Bear with me a bit because this needs some background.
The granddaddy of modern production functions is that developed by Charles Cobb and Paul Douglas during 19271947. They tested it statistically on historical data to come up with the values for the main variables, and along with Leontieff input-output models this is the basis of virtually all work in the field today. And it can't be called Keynesian because it predates Keynesian theory by almost a decade.
The Cobb-Douglas models posits a simple economy where there are two factors of production, labor and capital, which are used to produce a single output (affectionately called "schmoos" in the literature) which is used to produce everything else. So we have a labor market, a capital market, multiple product markets which have schmoos as the only input, and of course a market for schmoos. This is about as simple as you can get in a production function; David Ricardo had three factors of production in his (land, labor, and capital). Hang on to the name Ricardo; you need it later.
The interesting application of the Cobb-Douglas model comes when you compare what happens with it when the product markets are perfectly competitive against what happens when the product markets are monopolies. With a bunch of simplifying assumptions, it turns out that the share of national product going to labor decreases as markets become more monopolistic (no surprise there). But the share going to capital also decreases (i.e. the rate of return on capital investment also decreases). This is not a good thing. Where did the missing portion go?
Bring back David Ricardo. In his model labor received wages, capital received profits, and owners of land received rents. In Ricardo's system, land and rents were the bad guy. Since the supply of land was fixed and ownership was exogenous to the economic system (owners of raw land didn't have to really do anything other than breath and accept money), over time the share of national income going to this "unproductive" class increased. Thomas Malthus extended this analysis to population dynamics and ended up with inevitable poverty for the workers as they kept reproducing as wage rates fell and rentiers became wealthier. If this sounds Marxist, remember that this is a century before Marx. Marx was a Ricardian.
So what does Ricardian rent theory have to do with Cobb-Douglas production functions? Well both are examples of monopoly rents. Classic Ricardian rents are created by the scarcity of land and the independence of land ownership from economic function. With Cobb-Douglas profits are divided into "normal profits" which are returns to capital and "monopoly profits" which are returns to monopoly power. In a purely competitive market, monopoly rents are zero.
I'm finessing another issue here. Monetary theory posits another element, financial capital which has a return called interest. This introduces concepts of time preference and financial (capital) markets. Businesses use financial capital to purchase physical capital. This results in interest being the share of national income going to the owners of financial capital, and because financial markets are assumed to be highly competitive and efficient, the projected rate of return on financial capital should be the same as the projected rate of return on physical capital. In other words, a financial capitalist should get the same return investing his money in financial instruments as he would investing in plant and equipment. This leaves the share of profits to be a "pure" return to entrepreneurship or management skill. So the final model would have income shares going to land (rent), labor (wages), financial capital (interest), management skill (profit), and monopoly power (monopoly rents).
So where does all this lead us? The surmise is that technological change is increasing the role of intellectual property which is a legal monopoly in many cases. Patent and trademark law are basically ways to establish and control legal monopolies. It's also argued that more mundane factors (like "too big to fail") are causing concentration in many markets. And as companies like Apple emerge with virtually no connection to physical production, and the marginal cost of much of what they sell is zero (what really is the marginal cost of the millionth copy of downloaded software?), they charge whatever the market will bear. To them all costs are sunk costs incurred before there is any income (think R & D) and the connection between income and future investment is conjecture. This is monopoly rent.
The reasoning goes that a Cobb-Douglas model in this set of circumstances would predict a falling share of national income to wages, financial capital, and profits and an increasing share to monopoly (market) power. Branding, advertising, and intellectual property litigation, as well as lobbying regulatory agencies and legislatures, come to the fore replacing hiring, training, financing, and investing in physical capital as the means of generating success in business. International competitiveness decreases as income inequality increases. Production, employment, raw resource prices, and national income all decrease or stagnate. Sound familiar?
So is this an adequate explanation of what is happening today? And if so, what can be done to reverse it? What say you?