ilia25
I can do math
- Jan 12, 2012
- 1,859
- 100
- 48
No, they didn't.
In fact, effective tax rates were much lower back then compared to now.
Your failure to read your own sources is truly pathetic.
Average rates don't matter, we are talking about the rich.
And you keep ignoring my central argument about the economy in 50s-60s. It was growing fast despite the fact that it was impossible for people to get really rich. There was much less opportunity to make millions in non-investment income. And even if someone managed to do that (very few did), they would have to give away most of their earnings in taxes.
It was much more egalitarian society, yet the economy did not suffer. And that confirms that we can fix much higher income inequality by taxing the rich more and helping working poor and middle class without hurting the overall economy.
During the 2012 campaign, it was broadly discussed that the income gap between rich and poor had increased to its highest level since 1967.
Did you get that? The last time the income gap was this broad was in the 1960's.
You've misunderstood the statement -- if it was made that way. May be they did not have records earlier than 1967, but inequality was less then and it has been rising steadily since then.
And I believe research of the 1 percenters will show that a whole bunch of them got their start in the 1950's and 60's that encouraged prosperity rather than discouraged it.
The fact is that it was much harder to become super-rich then, than it is now.