James Everett
Active Member
- Nov 14, 2014
- 771
- 14
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So what you are stating is that the very bases of the argument being the fourteenth amendment only applies to certain groups of citizens of the U.S. while denying that of others. If the SCOTUS opinion is based on that amendment. then it must apply to polygamist as well.You posted in response to my question concerning the right of polygamist to marry, that "NO" they do not have that right.Well you answered my question concerning polygamists....What of the polygamist, does polygamy now become a legal marriage, since marriage is being re-defined?
No.
In your illogical reasoning, it is OK to discriminate against those whom you choose in that a marriage is defined in your reasoning as between a man and a woman, a woman and a woman, or a man and a man, yet not between one man and five women, or one woman and five men.
Does this make you a bigot, or a hypocrite who chooses to bring police into the bedroom of polygamists?
No- it just means you have a reading comprehension problem- since I never said any of what you say I said.
You need to re-read your answer to my question.
You either have a reading comprehension problem- or an integrity problem
What you asked:
What of the polygamist, does polygamy now become a legal marriage, since marriage is being re-defined?
What I answered:
No
My answer- as I spelled out before- is absolutely correct- the current court cases have nothing to do with polygamy, and regardless of the decision, it will have no legal impact on whether polygamy is legal marriage or not.