I don' think so.True, but what is their relationship?
Beyond a certain level, can we say income inequality becomes a necessary but not a sufficient condition for poverty?
Are you suggesting that, if income inequality wasn't allowed, there would be no poverty?
Maybe if income inequality was reduced poverty would follow?
There will always be some inequality of incomes; however, what we've seen over the past forty years, I believe, has more to do with government tax and trade policies which have been implemented to benefit one percent of workers at the expense of the middle class.
I don't really see how income inequality and poverty are related at all. It's like claiming the cause of shortness is height inequality.