dcraelin
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- Sep 4, 2013
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The obvious problem being....there is no right to vote to abrogate the rights of minorities. And the federal judiciary has already ruled that Prop 8 does exactly that....a ruling that went all the way to the USSC and remained intact and authoritative.I would argue that a California voter could sue on the grounds of suppression of their civil rights to have their vote counted. If a person's vote's power is being denied to them, whereas in other states that same person on the same law question is being allowed the power of their vote, then a system of oppression/tyranny exists in the state where the voter is arbitrarily excluded from his civil right.NOpe again. The USSC has already denied stays of implementation by Oregon. And ruled that individual citizens not ajudicating their *own* gay marriage in Californiaa do not have standing on Prop 8. And thus, can't appeal any ruling or challenge any ruling.
So its obviously not 'anyone'.
And unlike UT, the CA AG isn't appealing anything, nor is looking for any stay on the issue. You've simply got no one with standing in CA who could appeal the case interested in doing so. There's nothing to 'overrule'. As there have been no 'stays' requested by the State of California for the courts to reject or affirm.
And you can't overrule an imaginary ruling that never happened.
As the 'right to vote to abrogate rights of minorities' doesn't exist, then its impossible to violate. Nixing your entire argument. Prop 8 is and remains illegal in the State of California. There are no appeals. There are no stays of implementation submitted to the courts by California. The issue has been adjuciated.
That you don't like the outcome is irrelevant.
Then show us. You're insinuations and assumptions of the hypothetical existence of hypothetical cases isn't actually evidence of anything. Just like your insinuations and assumptions of an eventual Supreme Court ruling authorizing Prop 8 doesn't actually have any legal authority today.That cannot be. And I'll be you could find dozens of SCOTUS case law to cite when appealing to them for redress. There cannot be a legal situation in America where a voter's rights can be stripped from him arbitrarily while those same exact, precisely-exact rights exist for his neighbors in another state.
Remember, your imagination has no relevance to the rest of us. And certainly none with the courts.
Show us the cases that support your argument. If there are 'dozens and dozens', then it should be remarkably easy for you to find. If so such cases exist, it will be slightly harder.
The SC "punted" on prop 8,.....no definitive ruling exists....cause they came up with a BS argument (like most of their arguments) that the defenders didnt have "standing". Even in this "punt" tho they have perhaps done lasting damage to our Republican(res.publica..the public's business) system of government. Seven million people dont have standing?
The case was brought to federal court under the bogus procedures outlined in ex parte Young a case that was decided as a corrupt favor to powerful Railroad Corporations. Corporations that were the Goldman Sachs, Citibanks of their day. In short they owed the federal judiciary. (see my earlier post today, to see a case of current federal judge idiocy)
The "rights" provision appealed to in these cases, the 14th amendment, contains wording that supposedly gives corporate person-hood. A prominent historian Charles Beard believed it was written as a favor to the RR Corporations. It was the only constitutional amendment that first failed but was "reconsidered" under coercive threat. It is an illegitimate amendment.
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