Little-Acorn
Gold Member
No, his uncle gave him the money to buy the gun, since Abramski was a cop and could get a discount. It was unquestionably a violation of the written law.
Which means the law was badly written at best, and unconstitutional at worst.
Because there was in fact NOTHING WRONG with Abramski taking money from his uncle to buy a gun for that uncle. Didn't threaten anybody, hurt anybody, violate anybody's rights.
Which is why it is illegal (forbidden by the 2nd amendment) for the govt to make a law restricing that purchase.
The Supremes should have declared that, in the case of Abramski, the law was unconstitutional. Whether they simply reversed and remanded, or struck down the law altogether, is a question for a different discussion.
But there is no question that this law violated Abramski's and his uncle's right to keep and bear arms. There is no conceivable reason why those two should not have been able to do what they did. And it is ILLEGAL to make a law preventing them from doing it.
Which means the law was badly written at best, and unconstitutional at worst.
Because there was in fact NOTHING WRONG with Abramski taking money from his uncle to buy a gun for that uncle. Didn't threaten anybody, hurt anybody, violate anybody's rights.
Which is why it is illegal (forbidden by the 2nd amendment) for the govt to make a law restricing that purchase.
The Supremes should have declared that, in the case of Abramski, the law was unconstitutional. Whether they simply reversed and remanded, or struck down the law altogether, is a question for a different discussion.
But there is no question that this law violated Abramski's and his uncle's right to keep and bear arms. There is no conceivable reason why those two should not have been able to do what they did. And it is ILLEGAL to make a law preventing them from doing it.