Kimura
VIP Member
OK, since now is later, let's talk about the crowding out effect. This is related to something called Ricardian equivalence and has been around classical economics for a long time. The problem is that it dates from the period economists ASSUMED full employment of resources.
however, it's pretty difficult to deny that there is a crowding out effect. Again, going back to the equation:
G − T = S − I
Again, if we take the foreign sector out of the equation and just focus on the domestic side. If government spending increases (G) while tax revenue (T) remains the same, then the left side of the equation gets bigger. Basic accounting (calculus rather) tells us that the right side of the equation must increase as well. It means people must cut down on consumption and save more, but this can also cause private sector investment to decrease.
Remember that this is an accounting identity and not a function. It describes the equilibrium post facto equivalence after the market effects have worked themselves out, not what happens in getting to that equilibrium. So the argument is that if we start from a full-employment equilibrium of all factors of production and increase government spending in a two-sector model, savings must go up by an equal amount in the next equilibrium, by definition. This is true.
The usual was to explain the MECHANISM is that the government increases the supply of government securities to fund the deficit, which drives prices down in the bond market, effectively raising interest rates. Confronted with higher interest rates, the household sector will find savings relatively more attractive and consumption slightly less and adjust their behavior to a new equilibrium involving less consumption and more saving. The process only stops when an interest rate is reached at which the additional saving enticed from the household sector matches the increased government spending.
Have I stated this fairly?
No complaints so far.
This is where the sticky part is. When interest rates increase, households will adjust their "consumption ratio" downward. Most of this effect will probably be consumers who cannot afford to borrow as much and thus lower plans for consumption, which is why consumer durables are more volatile than food or clothing, the mechanism is not on the consumer wants side, it is on the consumer capacity side of household optimization. Households are to some extent income-constrained.
But all of this rests on the initial assumption of full employment of all factors of production. Suppose this is not true. In linear programming terms the "shadow cost" of the partially unused resource is zero. Economists would say the opportunity cost of that resource was zero. Both mean that we can utilize more of that resource because it is "free". But while the resource may have a marginal productivity of zero, it is still likely to be paid a traditional price for that resource. Where I work the woods are full of half empty commercial space whose asking rents have not fallen the last five years. Combine sticky resource prices and excess capacity and you set up a new possibility. The government spending immediately injects income into the household sector (labor is paid wages and property owners start receiving rent on formerly vacant space). They are no longer as income-constrained as they were before, and can increase both consumption and savings!
All you've done was explain what effects idle resources can do for other people. Not necessarily analysis the benefits relative to the cost. This is where I take the time to mention another component of classical economics called Bastiat's Fable. What? I thought we were just mentioning economist at random...
The problem with those who concur that there is no crowding out is largely due to the assumption that there are idle resources. This also has to do with the distinction between wealth and employment. Even if you do believe that government would spend in a way which would only involve unemployed resources, the measure would result in a harmful solution which would make a particular area poorer.
Shadow cost are 0 to someone else, which always come at a cost to another person. At zero prices, there is always greater demand than supply. Some people tend to assume that scarcity does not exist in some sectors of the economy. Goods are free by nature, but inappropriate institutional arrangements have led to scarcity. Free resources utilised in one sector can always be utilised in another sector which is more productive. There is really no such thing as a Free resource, not in the Government sector or Private Sector.
For example, the issue is what is the best outlet for all of these idle resources. Does the final mix output satisfy consumer desires? How can we be sure that channeling these resources into sector X won't actually do more harm than good? In practice, the market economy does a fanasitc job of doing this called a profit-and-loss calculation, which are conveyed in the form of market prices. Anyone can use an example of anyone who was currently laid-off as a result of the financial crisis. Me in particular, while we are still employing personal anecdotes.
This Wall Street Broker isn't doing anybody a service by cranking out models that give mortgage-backed securities a gold star for safety. What do I do with my degree? Should I go and teach other how to trade in the markets or was my education a complete was, in which given the economic opportunities, provide services at Wal-Mart. No one knows the answers to these questions, but what eventually happens in the recovery process as the unemployed initially looks for another job with the same salary as before. As the months pass, she realizes that this is unrealistic, and she begins lowering his minimum price. Eventually, he finds an employer with compatible desires, and the two agree to a mutually beneficial arrangement.
In this scenario, idle unemployment serves as a real function in the marketplace, but they're never truly idle. They're always assumed uses for resources which can be put to better uses. When government spends money and runs up deficits, all it means is that it is forcing taxpayers to spend money on projects that the market wouldn't normally fund, and for more often than not a very good reason.
For example, video game developer 38 studios going into bankruptcy, the state department purchasing 2,500 kindles, the bankruptcy of A123 Systems, and others. Now, I can give these examples all day, and I'm sure someone else would love that. But regardless at the extent at the government is using that money, whether for investment or for current government expenditures, it is not available for other people. The key thing to remember it's not whether or not investors are being crowded out. It's the fact that they could be investing into other economic activity, which could be more productive than government debt, given that the government activity is not very productive. The question of whether or not Government Spending is going to be less productive than Private Spending is ultimately an empirical one.
This is because in principle, we expect this to be the case. If you are spending your own money on yourself you are going to spend very carefully. If you are also spending someone else's money on yourself, you're still going to spend it with some reasonable amount of concern, but ultimately very carefully. However, if you are spending someone else's money on someone else (which is what is the case with government), then you have no real incentive to actually use that money effectively or efficiently. This is simply an economic reality. Ultimately, government spending frees up another income and produces savings at the expense of constraining anther's income and savings.
I leave it to you to explain how this gives rise to the multiplier effect. In summary, the closer we are to full utilization of resources (which is reflected in markets by price inflation), the more "crowding-out" we will observe. The more unused resources in an economy (high unemployment rates and commercial vacancy rates), the less "crowding-out" and the higher the multiplier. Both descriptions of an economy are correct given they are applied to the appropriate set of circumstances.
Again, all this has very much to do with scarcity, and the assumption that there is none. Depending on the economic sector your are referring to. If deficits are financed by the public, then it causes a diversion of savings into government projects. If deficits are financed by bank inflation, then the diversion is indirect and the crowding out takes place by the printing of new money for government, competing for resources with the old money saved by the public sector.
This is all very New Keynesian in my estimation.
I know I’ve said governments don’t spend under a fiat system by “printing money”. This is still the truth; they spend by deposit creation in the banking system. Obviously, there’s dollars in circulation which were clearly printed but this is an entirely different process from flows of spending and/or taxation. I never mentioned where these credits and debits emanate from. They basically come from nowhere. I’m working on a Photoshop diagram to illustrate this. Any bond issuance by the government has nothing to do with “financing”. They function as a reserve drain to alleviate any competitive pressure on the target interest rate. Central banks cannot control the money supply. All they can control is the target interest rate by managing the liquidity in these reserves.
For example, let’s say the government spends $500 million dollars. The Treasury basically debits one of its cash accounts by $500 million and this means its reserve account at the FED declines by the same amount. The recipient then deposits the check for $500 million in their private bank accounts and its reserves increase by that amount.
Taxation works in the opposite fashion. Private bank accounts receive a debit (private reserves decrease) and the government accounts receive a credit and reserve increase. All this based on basic accounting entries. The taxation doesn’t really end up anywhere. It’s not stored in a vault, nor does it finance deficit spending in any capacity. The non-government sector can’t pay any of its tax obligations until the government has spent. We should ultimately view taxes as draining excess liquidity from the non-government sector. It demonstrates the government sector’s desire for that particular sector to have decreased spending capacity.
I’d like to reinforce my points. Let’s say the economy consists of two people on a tropical island. One person is the government sector and the other is the non-government sector. If the government runs a balanced budget (say spends $400 and taxes $400) then non-government sector accumulation of currency is zero (no net savings) in that time period and the budget is “balanced”.
If the government sector spends $500 and taxes remain at $400, then non-government sector (private) saving is $100 dollars which can accrue as financial assets. These $100 notes have issued by the government sector is pay for its added expenses. The government may even decide to issue bond to entice saving but operationally doesn’t have to do this to finance its deficits. The government deficit of $100 is private savings of $100 down to the last penny.
If the government continued to do this, all the accrued private savings would be equal to all the accumulated budget deficits. In the event the government ran a surplus (for example, it spends $400 and taxes $500) the private sector would be in debt – or would owe the government sector – a tax payment of $100 dollars. It would have to sell something to the government to obtain the required funds. The idea being that the government purchases back a portion of the bonds it sells. The net funding requirements of the non-government sector created this response from the government in the form of interest rate signaling so to speak.
These examples should help people realize that currency and the monetary base (reserves) and outstanding government financial securities comprise the total net financial assets of the non-government sector. It becomes a matter of basic accounting that the government provides the funds to the non-government sector for its desire to net save and for tax payments.
The classical claims about crowding are not based on any coherent mechanism. In point of fact, they repeatedly state that there’s a fixed pool of savings and that government spending is constrained from and financial standpoint. In other words, a currency issuer must source funding to carry out fiscal policy. The end result is competition for some finite pool of savings is interest rates increase and affect private spending. This is what we learned as financial crowding out.
An related theory is IS-LM theory from macro. It also erroneous assumes the FED – or BoE - or any central bank can exogenously control the supply of money. The increasing income from deficits increases the demand for money and increases interest rates to clear out the money market so to speak. This is retardo Keynesian theory of financial crowding out.
Both of these concepts aren’t even based in reality since it’s not connected to the fact that central banks increase interest rates because they should control inflation and these rate increases will decrease aggregate demand.
Real crowding out is very real, but financial crowding is largely an erroneous miscalculation.
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