Poll: Who has enforcement authority of the 14th Amendment to the US Constitution?

Who does the 14th specify as having the authority to enforce the 14th?

  • Congress

    Votes: 27 93.1%
  • The Maine SOS

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • A civil court judge in Colorado.

    Votes: 2 6.9%

  • Total voters
    29

Nostra

Diamond Member
Oct 7, 2019
62,564
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There seems to be some confusion on this, so I will post the 14th Amendment to the US Constitution in it's entirety so all can read from beginning to end to find the answer. I will include a link so I can't be accused of altering the text.




Fourteenth Amendment​

Fourteenth Amendment Explained


Section 1​



All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.



Section 2​



Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.



Section 3​



No person shall be a Senator or Representative in Congress, or elector of President and Vice-President, or hold any office, civil or military, under the United States, or under any State, who, having previously taken an oath, as a member of Congress, or as an officer of the United States, or as a member of any State legislature, or as an executive or judicial officer of any State, to support the Constitution of the United States, shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof. But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability.



Section 4​



The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.



Section 5​



The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.




 
Only Clarence Thomas has that sole authority if he so wants it.

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Hmmm... Do you mean to suggest that they Dems are misrepresenting the constitution? In other words, they are lying?
 

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Section 5 confirms that the US Constitution is null and void, when the question of the law needs to be decided by the congress.

It instructs congress to decide the law and section 5 will be meaningless until that happens.

As with the completely ineffective impeachment process, it carries no weight in law until the question is answered by politicians.
 
Section 5 confirms that the US Constitution is null and void, when the question of the law needs to be decided by the congress.

It instructs congress to decide the law and section 5 will be meaningless until that happens.

As with the completely ineffective impeachment process, it carries no weight in law until the question is answered by politicians.

That's not what Section 5 says at all. It says that Congress can overturn the removal of a name from the ballot, not that they have the authority to ban someone.

It says that Congress has the power to enforce Section 5, but it doesn' say who has the power to determine who should be removed. I guess it would depend on what office the person is running for.
 
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That's not what Section 5 says at all. It says that Congress can overturn the removal of a name from the ballot, not that they have the authority to ban someone.

It says that Congress has the power to enforce Section 5, but it doesn' say who has the power to determine who should be removed. I guess it would depend on what office the person is running for.
Cut and paste that part of Section 5.
 
There seems to be some confusion on this, so I will post the 14th Amendment to the US Constitution in it's entirety so all can read from beginning to end to find the answer. I will include a link so I can't be accused of altering the text.




Fourteenth Amendment​

Fourteenth Amendment Explained


Section 1​



All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.



Section 2​



Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.



Section 3​



No person shall be a Senator or Representative in Congress, or elector of President and Vice-President, or hold any office, civil or military, under the United States, or under any State, who, having previously taken an oath, as a member of Congress, or as an officer of the United States, or as a member of any State legislature, or as an executive or judicial officer of any State, to support the Constitution of the United States, shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof. But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability.



Section 4​



The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.



Section 5​



The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.




Is this a trick question?
 
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That's not what Section 5 says at all. It says that Congress can overturn the removal of a name from the ballot, not that they have the authority to ban someone.

It says that Congress has the power to enforce Section 5, but it doesn' say who has the power to determine who should be removed. I guess it would depend on what office the person is running for.
Since you failed to back up all your lies in this post let me educate you.

Section 5 lists only on entity having enforcement
Power. Congress.

And that power is over the entire article, Moron.
 
There seems to be some confusion on this, so I will post the 14th Amendment to the US Constitution in it's entirety so all can read from beginning to end to find the answer. I will include a link so I can't be accused of altering the text.




Fourteenth Amendment​

Fourteenth Amendment Explained


Section 1​



All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.



Section 2​



Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.



Section 3​



No person shall be a Senator or Representative in Congress, or elector of President and Vice-President, or hold any office, civil or military, under the United States, or under any State, who, having previously taken an oath, as a member of Congress, or as an officer of the United States, or as a member of any State legislature, or as an executive or judicial officer of any State, to support the Constitution of the United States, shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof. But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability.



Section 4​



The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.



Section 5​



The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.




That is not exclusive authority nor does it necessarily pertain to the Article 3 section.

States control their elections
 
That is not exclusive authority nor does it necessarily pertain to the Article 3 section.

States control their elections
It says ALL ARTICLES, Dumbass.

And yes, when only one entity is listed it IS exclusive.

Learn to read, Simp.
 
It says ALL ARTICLES, Dumbass.

And yes, when only one entity is listed it IS exclusive.

Learn to read, Simp.
Well, we differ in our interpretation.

I guess the Courts will decide then huh?
 
All the dimrats in Congress have violated this Section [emphasis mine and comments in brackets mine]

Section 3

No person shall be a Senator or Representative in Congress, or elector of President and Vice-President, or hold any office, civil or military, under the United States, or under any State, who, having previously taken an oath, as a member of Congress, or as an officer of the United States, or as a member of any State legislature, or as an executive or judicial officer of any State, to support the Constitution of the United States, shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof [They have favored other countries over the United States, even nations hostile to same. They have let anyone from any country in the world to invade our country]...

Throw the book at them
 
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You might note that Section 3 says Congress can overturn a determination of ineligibility.

Why would it say that if Section 5 gives Congress sole authority.

Congress can over turn itself?

That makes no sense

And you might also note that various Civil War insurrectionists WERE banned without any action by Congress AT THAT TIME
 
Well, we differ in our interpretation.

I guess the Courts will decide then huh?
See, that’s your problem…..I am reading the clear text of the amendment, and you are having to try to interpret it to fit your agenda.
 
See, that’s your problem…..I am reading the clear text of the amendment, and you are having to try to interpret it to fit your agenda.
You’re doing exactly the same.

Now tell me why Section 3 states that Congress can over turn itself

And why no Congressional action was taken on the incidences where insurrectionists were banned from office in the past
 
As per #12 above

The dimrats have violated their oath to the Constitution by allowing anyone from any country in the world to invade our country.

Just being a Congressperson or president (lawfully elected or otherwise) does NOT exempt you from following federal law.

The federal law does NOT allow people into our country willy nilly, simply because of the political whims of the party in control..

The president is not above the law (despite thinking he is)

They violate Section 3 by giving aid and comfort to our enemies, who continue to crash our borders and commit violent crimes against us and/or drain our resources
 
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You might note that Section 3 says Congress can overturn a determination of ineligibility.

Why would it say that if Section 5 gives Congress sole authority.

Congress can over turn itself?

That makes no sense

And you might also note that various Civil War insurrectionists WERE banned without any action by Congress AT THAT TIME
Section three clearly covers idiot civil court judges and rogue State SOS who think they have that power.

Next?
 
Section three clearly covers idiot civil court judges and rogue State SOS who think they have that power.

Next?
So Section 3 states that Congress can re-instate those that have been judged to be insurrectionists by (what you call idiot) civil courts that have ruled them ineligible.

No need for that of Congress has sole authority

Boom
 

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