Pop23
Gold Member
- Mar 28, 2013
- 26,685
- 4,383
Imbecile... it has nothing to do with gay marriage. Gay marriage is legally allowed because there is no compelling interest to ban it. There is no lack of such compelling interest in bathrooms. That is why there are no laws enforcing them like there are laws governing accessibility for handicapped people. Such bathrooms are being optionally offered as amenities in some establishments.That goes back to 2007 and has nothing to do with gay marriage. WTF is wrong with you?You do understand there are a number of both public and private facilities that have started already, right?
And it started because of the LBGTQ fight for rights.
Damn, there goes your "it will never happen" tirade.
Are you feeling all weepy now?
I have no idea what you think you are saying.
You not understanding the problems with your own straw man does not make it our problem.
11 years- and none of your predictions have come to pass.
Dude, it's already happening.
Emerson University follows disturbing trend by making restrooms gender-neutral to accommodate transgender students CBMW The Council on Biblical Manhood and Womanhood
I'll supply more links if you like?
And even college housing?U. of Missouri to implement gender-neutral housing restrooms USA TODAY College
Nope, that'll never happen!
Gay marriage went back prior to 2007 dimwit.
And the question is about similar situated individual being denied access.
Jim Crow be your friend?
Yet in one case you argue that a discrimination occurred since the two groups are similarily situated, in the other you argue that they are not.
In the same breath you argue the ADA? In accordance with the ADA, except when modification of the restroom is impossible, a separate restroom for the disabled is considered discrimination.
You're having difficulty with your reasoning skills.
So I will ask again.
What is the remarkable difference between a married lesbian and her male counterpart?