BLUE COLLAR
Gold Member
- Feb 13, 2021
- 969
- 236
Sure, it gives a reason for the people's right. It's expressed in the prefatory clause.It doesn't give a reason for the right.
It doesn't give a reason for the right to free speech either..
Free Speech is not in the 2ndA though I appreciate that you meant the Constitution. And, you are correct, unlike the 2ndA there is no prefatory clause in the 1stA. The rights are simply elaborated.