P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
- 78,959
- 4,381
P F Tinmore, et al,
Interesting.
(COMMENT-Thumbnail)P F Tinmore, et al,
Maybe it is the other way around.
(COMMENT)
The sovereign control of the territory was never in the hands of the Palestinians. It was in the hands of the Allied Command, acquired from the Ottoman Empire.
Is military control the same as sovereign control, or is that called occupation?
The Allied Command took control as a result of the Partitioning of the Ottoman Empire, after the Occupation of Istanbul. The Treaty of Lausanne replaced the Treaty of Sèvres, setting new borders and creating several mandates.
- British Mandate of Mesopotamia
- French Mandate of Syria and Lebanon
- British Mandate of Palestine
The Council of the League of Nations: said:Whereas the Principal Allied Powers have agreed, for the purpose of giving effect to the provisions of Article 22 of the Covenant of the League of Nations, to entrust to a Mandatory selected by the said Powers the administration of the territory of Palestine, which formerly belonged to the Turkish Empire, within such boundaries as may be fixed by them;
ARTICLE 1.
The Mandatory shall have full powers of legislation and of administration, save as they may be limited by the terms of this mandate.SOURCE: The Avalon Project : The Palestine Mandate
The Allied Powers established the control. It is why, as an example, the Passports were UK. This is not an unusual arrangement. Most Mandates are similar.
A mandatory has full powers.
Most Respectfully,
R
Indeed they did establish control, but their mandate, according to the LoN covenant, was to abide by the wishes of the people. The people were to have sovereignty.
The most obvious exercise of their sovereignty was their right to accept or reject the partition plan. If they did not have sovereignty it would have been a done deal and they would have no say.
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