What is a "settler"?

Later in your comment, you wrote: "No, you deliberately misunderstand."
I'll be the first to admit that I may misunderstand your sentiments but will promise you than it is not intentional.
Fair enough. I will assume good intentions.
I didn't see anything in your comment that refutes the fact that the criminal and provocative Israeli "Settlements" are proof that Israel's current government prefers conflict over a peaceful resolution of cyclical violence in which the Israelis end up with more land and fewer dead.
My position is that Jews residing in Judea and Samaria is neither criminal (illegal) nor provocative, nor proof of a desire for continued violence.

The State of Israel has the only legal sovereign claim to that land. If you dispute this, name the other legal claimants and outline the time, manner, and documentation for their claims. The problem is that there isn't another valid legal claim, there is only the claimed desire for a "two-state solution". There exists no legal boundary between territory under the sovereignty of Israel and territory under some other sovereign. It is all Israel from the Jordan to Egypt. There is no way to legally determine where Israel stops and some sort-of-state-of-Palestine begins. Thus, Jewish residency in all parts of the territory formerly under the Mandate for Palestine, as explicitly referenced in the 1922 Mandate, remains legal. Further, Area C, by treaty agreement between Israel and the organization tasked with representing the Palestinian people, is under full Israeli control. In order for Israeli residency in Judea and Samaria to be illegal, the international community and the UN must abrogate both treaties between States (or state-like actors) and treaties made by international bodies, such as the League of Nations and the UN. Treaties are the very basis of international law.

It may be your opinion but its not supported by the facts:
No, my opinion is very well supported and is not only my opinion, but the opinion of international law experts.
 
Your claim that BOTH sides have weaponized raw sewage shows the degree to which you are unwilling to face some inconvenient facts.
On the contrary, it is you refusing to recognize the perpetration on both sides.
IDF has destroyed all of Gaza's infrastructure which makes proper waste treatment and the ability to produce drinking water impossible.
Well, I was speaking specifically about Area C, but good example. The people of Gaza destroyed the infrastructure (specifically water and waste treatment) and used aid money to build tunnels and rockets.
I feel certain that you oppose war crimes like that but decisions to drop 2,000 pound bombs on homeless, hungry, sick and traumatized refugees are made by the current Netanyahu government.
My understanding is that bombs of this nature are typically used in evacuated areas. I'd have to look into this incident from multiple sources before commenting on it, specifically.
For example, I would not object to Settlements if Palestinians were afforded the same rights, aid and treatment.
Right, so if we gave up the desire for a two-state solution, and Israel applied sovereignty to the territory in its entirety.
As it is now, Palestinians can't even get building permits 99% of the time
Actually, this is really, really complicated and it does depend on which specific location we are discussing, but my understanding through research is that nearly all permits requested in Arab neighborhoods of Jerusalem are granted. But again, in Jerusalem and Area C BOTH Arabs and Jews are using lawfare to change "facts on the ground" and BOTH are using violence.
 
Israeli Actions: It is illegal under international law to acquire land by force:
This is interesting. If it is illegal under international law to acquire land by force (and I agree that it is) then we can agree that the invasion and occupation of Israel by Jordan and Egypt in 1948 was illegal and Israel could not have legally lost territory due to that illegal attack and occupation. Yes? And we can further agree that Israel reclaiming sovereign territory lost in the 1948 illegal invasion and occupation by Jordan and Egypt, would not be the same thing as "acquiring territory by force". Yes?
Israel annexed land occupied by force during 1948 and 1967 wars (lands other than those given by the UN 1947-48 partition plan) ILRC article.
I do not believe anyone in the international community is trying to enforce the 1947 partition plan. Nor could they, since the partition plan is not legally enforceable.
Military action and occupations are legal only if they are for self-defense,
Yes. Given that Jordan and Egypt (not to mention the other states) illegally invaded Israel in an act of belligerence, you can't seriously be arguing that Israel wasn't defending itself, can you?
or to directly benefit the native population. But studies show Israel is not just defending itself as it develops de-facto annexation with its settlements and separation barrier on occupied land, as it takes over most of the occupied territories (over 70%) and its natural resources for its own use and economic benefit, at the expense of the native population. ILRC article on why the Occupation is illegal.
But Israel is not occupying land which it doesn't have sovereign claim to or legal control over.
It is illegal to colonize occupied land or transfer non-indigenous population to that land. Israeli Actions: Immediately following the 1967 war, Israel began building Israeli civilian settlements on Palestinian lands, eventually building over 200 settlements throughout the occupied territories, and settling over 450,000 Israeli civilians in them,
Israel can't colonize its own territory, and the Jewish people ARE an indigenous peoples in that territory. Israel has the right of residency in Judea and Samaria by multiple treaties, as explained above.
displacing hundreds of thousands of Palestinian civilians from their own legally owned lands.
This is simply not accurate. Land ownership in Area C is ridiculously complicated owing to a combination of Israeli, Jordanian, and Ottoman land laws. The system is not straight-forward, simple system of who "owns" this acre of land. Understanding the concepts of Ottoman land use vs Western-style ownership is necessary before one can make sweeping claims like the one above. I would also dispute the accuracy of the numbers of displaced persons.
 
On the contrary, it is you refusing to recognize the perpetration on both sides.

Well, I was speaking specifically about Area C, but good example. The people of Gaza destroyed the infrastructure (specifically water and waste treatment) and used aid money to build tunnels and rockets.

My understanding is that bombs of this nature are typically used in evacuated areas. I'd have to look into this incident from multiple sources before commenting on it, specifically.

Right, so if we gave up the desire for a two-state solution, and Israel applied sovereignty to the territory in its entirety.

Actually, this is really, really complicated and it does depend on which specific location we are discussing, but my understanding through research is that nearly all permits requested in Arab neighborhoods of Jerusalem are granted. But again, in Jerusalem and Area C BOTH Arabs and Jews are using lawfare to change "facts on the ground" and BOTH are using violence.
The USA's Two-State Solution Was Oklahoma

Our RichKid Reich's predecessors, the English nobility, tried to force a Two-State Solution on its American commoners in 1763. All land west of the coastal colonies was set aside for the unproductive thrill-killing Indian savages. Whites were not allowed to go there.

Daniel Boone was the first to defy this Affirmative Action, which led directly to our War of Independence. Since the same anti-White attitude from the same type of ruling class prevails today, it is time to have the really first American Revolutionary War.
 

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