Israel recognized Palestine as a state when it signed an agreement with it.The bottom line is that no agreement between the occupying power and the occupied can allow the violation of the people's rights.
The fallacy is in the idea that there was an "occupying power" and an "occupied territory" in 1994. There was not. The government of the nascent State of Palestine, representing the people of Palestine, was for the FIRST TIME taking steps towards self-governing -- notably the ability to enter into agreements with States. There can't be an occupation of something which doesn't exist (that is a State).
Meh. Not convinced that is entirely true, but close enough and let's go with that. In 1994 Israel recognized Palestine as a state. Cool.
What territory did Israel recognize as no longer under Israeli sovereignty? On which territory was Palestine self-governing? According to the Oslo Agreement?
Therefore, in particular, what territory was recognized by Israel as belonging to Palestine but was not turned over to Palestinian authority and could, post-Oslo, still be considered "occupied"?It doesn't matter what Israel recognizes.Therefore, in particular, what territory was recognized by Israel as belonging to Palestine
It doesn't matter that you believe an islamic terrorist enclave is a "state".