Quantum Windbag
Gold Member
- May 9, 2010
- 58,308
- 5,100
I said it was NOT discrimination to choose a person for a job based on their politics when they were EQUALLY QUALIFIED. That was the premise of the study question.
How could it be? If you think it is, tell us why, in detail.
How can if be discrimination to chose a more qualified white man over a less qualified black one?
Are you a racist? Why are you having trouble answering that question?
It's not discrimination to choose a more qualified white man. However, if a court determination has been made that past discrimination warrants a remedy, affirmative action to the benefit of the black man might be the remedy.
Discrimination is a remedy for discrimination? Does that make murder a remedy for murder? Can I use slavery to stop slavery?