Kevin_Kennedy
Defend Liberty
- Aug 27, 2008
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- #101
Were they not all "extraordinary circumstance" example of when a President could use lethal force against American citizens on US soil? So the question has been answered. Rand is just grandstanding.
No, it hasn't, because the question is not in regards to so-called extraordinary circumstances.
Of course it does. The answer is no, unless some extraordinary circumstance arises, like the ones pointed out by the good folks here.
So then why won't they explicitly say no? Why does it have to be assumed? Why do they deflect and answer questions nobody asked?