bripat9643
Diamond Member
- Apr 1, 2011
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Wrong. It was mandated. Like all other douche bags, you are totally ignorant of what Jim Crow was.
No, states such as Tennessee had this sort of law:
1885: Public accommodations [Statute] All well-behaved persons to be admitted to theaters, parks, shows, or other public amusements, but also declared that proprietors had the right to create separate accommodations for whites and Negroes.
See? Doesn't MANDATE segregation, but allows proprietors the right to choose to segregate.
Read a book or something.
The Jim Crow laws didn't come into existence mostly until the 1890s. Prior to that a federal civil rights law mandated equal treatment of blacks, but it expired.
In 1890, Louisiana passed a law requiring separate accommodations for colored and white passengers on railroads. Louisiana law distinguished between "white", "black" and "colored" (that is, people of mixed European and African ancestry). The law already specified that blacks could not ride with white people, but colored people could ride with whites before 1890. A group of concerned black, colored and white citizens in New Orleans formed an association dedicated to rescinding the law. The group persuaded Homer Plessy, who was one-eighth "Negro" and of fair complexion, to test it.[citation needed]Legally mandated discrimination.
I said it was not universally mandatory. I was right. You were wrong.
That's a distinction without a difference. The fact is that virtually all discrimination that occurred was legally mandated.
You're still an ignorant asshole. If the government tells a theatre that they have to let anyone in as long as they behave properly, but,
if they WANT to, they can separate the races,
have they MANDATED segregation?
The law required them to, moron. I just listed over a dozen laws that mandated such policies.