emilynghiem
Constitutionalist / Universalist
- Jan 21, 2010
- 23,669
- 4,181
Dear Fellow Liberals:
Can you please help me to understand the difference, in your terms,
where I have a greater chance of understanding as a fellow Progressive Democrat:
What is the difference between the
* Arizona bill (recently passed but vetoed), which did not FORCE businesses to refuse services to certain people, but PERMIT them; and which did not DIRECTLY mention homosexuality but could have INDIRECTLY been used to deny services to gay people.
Just because it "indirectly permitted" something, people opposed it because they did not agree with what it permitted (although it was not direct and not forced by law).
and the
* Hobby Lobby case (currently pending before SC), which does not FORCE businesses to provide abortifacient drugs DIRECTLY, but does require them under penalty of law to provide insurance that REQUIRES this access, so that INDIRECTLY ALLOWS employees to access abortifacient drugs "the company does not believe in providing or promoting"
In this case, people are arguing it only PERMITS access and does not FORCE it; yet it is being protested. What is the difference? Can you please explain or discuss?
I appreciate ALL your insights, as you have all been helpful in the past,
even if you don't think so.
[MENTION=20155]paperview[/MENTION]
[MENTION=32558]Luddly Neddite[/MENTION]
[MENTION=12120]Coloradomtnman[/MENTION]
If I leave someone out, please feel free to invite them in. Thank you!
=================================================
I see both cases as being protested because of people's BELIEFS on both sides.
Why is it okay to push one side of either issue? Doesn't that discriminate against people of the opposite belief?
If you do believe in supporting one side against the other, why is it okay in one case but not okay in the other?
Can you please help me to understand the difference, in your terms,
where I have a greater chance of understanding as a fellow Progressive Democrat:
What is the difference between the
* Arizona bill (recently passed but vetoed), which did not FORCE businesses to refuse services to certain people, but PERMIT them; and which did not DIRECTLY mention homosexuality but could have INDIRECTLY been used to deny services to gay people.
Just because it "indirectly permitted" something, people opposed it because they did not agree with what it permitted (although it was not direct and not forced by law).
and the
* Hobby Lobby case (currently pending before SC), which does not FORCE businesses to provide abortifacient drugs DIRECTLY, but does require them under penalty of law to provide insurance that REQUIRES this access, so that INDIRECTLY ALLOWS employees to access abortifacient drugs "the company does not believe in providing or promoting"
In this case, people are arguing it only PERMITS access and does not FORCE it; yet it is being protested. What is the difference? Can you please explain or discuss?
I appreciate ALL your insights, as you have all been helpful in the past,
even if you don't think so.
[MENTION=20155]paperview[/MENTION]
[MENTION=32558]Luddly Neddite[/MENTION]
[MENTION=12120]Coloradomtnman[/MENTION]
If I leave someone out, please feel free to invite them in. Thank you!
=================================================
I see both cases as being protested because of people's BELIEFS on both sides.
Why is it okay to push one side of either issue? Doesn't that discriminate against people of the opposite belief?
If you do believe in supporting one side against the other, why is it okay in one case but not okay in the other?