Vanquish
Vanquisher of shills
- Aug 14, 2009
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I know. That's my point.Interesting then that Article III does not specifically grant this power to the court - that the court itself had to take the power for itself by fiat.
The Supreme Court of the United States established judicial review in the case of Marbury v. Madison, which was argued before the Supreme Court in 1801.
Judicial review did not exist until the court decided it had the power to decide it had the power of Judicial review. It took the power for itself by fiat.
Yes....Article III Section 2 states:
Section 2.
The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution,
Where in that is the power granted to the court to interpret the meaning of the Constitution? If that power is there, why/how did it not exist until the court gave it to itself in Marbury, as -you- said?
I say that it does! That's exactly what those words mean in my estimation. I don't think the court had to "give" itself anything. What's the point of a SCOTUS if they're not holding laws and the application of laws to the test??
I think some conservatives have entirely forgotten the concept of something that's IMPLIED./B] There are implied powers and implied doctrines that are valid and constitutional.