Wry Catcher
Diamond Member
- Banned
- #481
Seems pretty clear to me.
A well regulated militia, composed of the body of the People, being the best security of a free State, the right of the People to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed, but no one religiously scrupulous of bearing arms shall be compelled to render military service in person.3
On September 4, the Senate agreed to amend Article 5 to read as follows: A well regulated militia, being the best security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed.
On September 9, the Senate replaced "the best" with "necessary to the." On the same day, the Senate disagreed to a motion to insert "for the common defence" after "bear arms." This article and the following ones were then renumbered as articles 4 through 8.
All the debate was about requiring people to keep and bear arms, not the right. Thanks for proving you can't read.
I read quite well, thank you. Let's put a bit more emphasis on each phrase framed by the intent of Article I, Sec. 8, Clause 15 and 16.
The topic phrase in bold is this: A well regulated militia, being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of people (of the several states) to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
Reading the amendment in this manner suggests the Second was proposed because each state still held fears about a strong central government and wanted to the amendment to defend their State from the central government. Your proof ignored the debate on several levels and I suspect you skipped through the entire link until you found a phrase which supported the conclusion you had at the beginning.
There were dozens of proposals put forth on this one amendment and most dealt with the matter of standing armies vis a vis militia's and not with an individuals right to bear arms. I suspect every rural American in 1789 owned a rifle and it never occurred to the founder's that the right to bear such a gun would ever be infringed.
If we adopt your reading it clearly prohibits national level gun control. If we then read the 14th Amendment, and the debate surrounding it, we discover that the same restrictions apply to the states.
You just lost the debate.
Section 1? I see the point and understand the argument based on this phrase: "No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property without due process of law...equal protection of the laws"
The intent of the Congress and the States in passing the 14th had nothing to do with the Second Amendment, it had to do with protecting in the Constitution the principles of the Emancipation Proclamation.
One must conclude that even the 14th would allow for depriving a citizen of the right to own, possess or have in his or her custody and control a firearm as long as due process of law was applied.
Here's an example of law wherein such a law is in effect, the first paragraph is the germane section.
http://theacademy.ca.gov/docs/CA Penal Code 12021.pdf
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