BLUE COLLAR
Gold Member
- Feb 13, 2021
- 969
- 236
- 178
Yes it is, that's what the prefatory clause does, states the reason/purpose for the 2ndA. Did they not teach grammar where you went to school. Someone call Betsy and report this travesty.No it isn't. Furthermore, the term "tied to" is meaningless.
Using twisted grammar to deny the presence of the prefatory clause is not simply an interpretation of the stated clause but an amendment to 2ndA.