TemplarKormac
Political Atheist
Can you tell me where in the Constitution it grants people the right to suppress the beliefs of Christians to appease the sensibilities of a homosexual?
No one is advocating to "suppress the beliefs of Christians to appease the sensibilities of a homosexual,” the notion is ignorant nonsense.
That the Constitution forbids you and others on the right from seeking to codify your subjective religious dogma designed to deny gay Americans their civil liberties does not ‘violate’ your beliefs as Christians.
Your right to religious expression, as is the case with all other rights, although inalienable, is not absolute, and is subject to reasonable restrictions by the government (see, e.g., Edwards v. Aguillard (1987)), where your religious believes do not give you license to violate the civil liberties of others.
No one is advocating to "suppress the beliefs of Christians to appease the sensibilities of a homosexual,” the notion is ignorant nonsense.
Interesting. Then why is it, Clayton, that a Christian baker must be forced to bake a cake for a gay couple, thus being forced to condone that way of life against their faith? Why must a Christian photographer photograph a same sex wedding? Why, Clayton, must Catholic institutions be forced to provide abortifacient coverage for their female employees against their faith? And you're telling me that we aren't trying to suppress the religious in this country? Please, kindly remove your head from your posterior.
Why, Clayton, does one person's lifestyle trump the religious rights of another? I could assume by your logic, that your secular beliefs should not be able to infringe on the civil liberties of others either, but hey, gay people have a right to commit sacrilege, but Christians cannot commit to their faith. Utter hypocrisy.
Moreover, the Aguillard case is irrelevant to this discussion. Seeing as how it dealt with a Supreme Court ruling that a Louisiana law requiring schools to teach creation science (which has ironically, NOTHING to do with homosexuality) violated the First Amendment and was unconstitutional, your argument is thus a non sequitur.
I find your selective application of the law to be rather disturbing, Clayton. And let me instruct you on the Lemon test (which was ironically used in the Aguillard case). This test was used in Lemon v. Kurtzman, 403 U.S. 602 (1971). It is a three pronged assessment used by the Supreme Court to judge the requirements for legislation (secular or religious) concerning religion, it consists of A) Purpose B) Effect and C) Entanglement:
1. (Purpose) The government's action must have a legitimate secular purpose;
2. (Effect) The government's action must not have the primary effect of either advancing or inhibiting religion; and
3. (Entanglement) The government's action must not result in an "excessive entanglement" of the government and religion.
Thus as far as Public Accommodation laws go, they are unconstitutional and violate the First amendment, simply for breaching the 2nd and 3rd clause. I assume this case can be made that the reverse is true for secular laws concerning religion also. My argument goes as such: that A) Public Accommodation laws do in fact have the primary effect of inhibiting religion (and the religious practices of proprietors) in this case; and B) such determinations by the Government of what entails religious practice as far as the proprietor goes is therefore excessive entanglement of government and religion.
No Clayton, sit down.
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