No link?You bring this up a lot. This is where you play hopscotch with the law.
Before the war the West Bank (it wasn't called the West Bank then.) was Palestinian territory. After the war it was occupied by Jordan. It was occupied Palestinian territory. Jordan attempted to annex the West Bank but since it is illegal to annex occupied territory, and occupations do not acquire sovereignty. most of the world did not recognize this attempt at annexation. It was still occupied Palestinian territory.
In 1967 Israel took that occupation from Jordan. It was still occupied Palestinian territory. Jordan could not give that territory to anyone. It was not theirs to give or to lose.
"Palestinian territory" has no legal meaning in this context. It does not mean what you intend to force it to mean which is "territory to be held indefinitely in anticipation of the emergence of an Arab government capable of sustaining the self-determination of Arab peoples currently and formerly resident in the territory labelled 'Palestine' while specifically preventing the Jewish peoples of the same territory from exercising their self-determination in the form of a State."
"Palestinian territory", the way you use it, is a nonsense word which attempts to give the illusion of something that doesn't exist. "Palestinian territory" is nothing more than a description of a place.Another bullshit Israeli talking point."Palestinian territory" has no legal meaning in this context.
Link?
Another whiny non-response.
"Palestinian territory" has no legal meaning. It was not a State, nor was it any other type of legal entity. You are trying to insist the term "Palestinian territory" means "territory to be held aside pending the emergence of a legal sovereign which isn't Jewish". It isn't a thing.
Of course not.
RoccoR and P F Tinmore,
If you have anything at all which proves “Palestinian Territory” had some other legal meaning than a geographical descriptor prior to 1948, I’d kindly suggest you bring it to the thread.
Tinmore has LONG argued that the State of Palestine came into existence in 1924, in spite of failing to meet the criteria of Statehood right up to the present day.
I’m surprised you are agreeing with Tinmore here Rocco. Perhaps you can state your reasoning.
Ask Tinmore this: If Palestine was a state in 1924 , why did they need to declare Independence in 1948? I suspect there will be no answer