danielpalos
Diamond Member
- Banned
- #121
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State. It is even "codified" in our Second Amendment.Militia: a body of citizens organized for military service.That the militia is organized by a State or the Union, not private Persons.If the 2nd means no limitations on armed citizens, why are knives controlled and limited?
Because it doesn't mean this.
The 2A is there to protect the militia from the federal govt.
Individuals are allowed weapons so the militia has a ready supply of weapons (keep arms)
Individuals are allowed to be in the militia so the militia has a ready supply of personnel to use those weapons (bear arms)
Or better said, the feds can't prevent individuals, before due process, from being able to have arms. They can prevent certain types of arms, just as long as individuals can get militia type weaponry.
"Dick championed the Militia Act of 1903, which became known as the Dick Act. This law repealed the Militia Acts of 1792 and organized the militia into two groups: the Reserve Militia, which included all able-bodied men between ages 17 and 45, and the Organized Militia, which included state militia (National Guard) units receiving federal support.[17][18][19][20]
"The Dick Act included $2 million for National Guard units to modernize equipment, and permitted states to use federal funds to pay for National Guard summer training encampments. The National Guard in each state was also required to carry out a uniform schedule of weekend or weeknight drills and annual summer training camps. In addition, the War Department agreed to fund the attendance of Guard officers at Army schools, and active Army officers would serve as inspectors and instructors of National Guard units. The War Department also agreed to organize joint Army-National Guard exercises and training encampments"
Militia Act of 1903 - Wikipedia the free encyclopedia
Taken within the context of Art. I, sec 8, clause 15 & 16 the Reserve Militia, not being funded or trained, is simply all men between 18 and 45 eligible to be drafted:
" The Selective Training and Service Act of 1940, also known as the Burke-Wadsworth Act, Pub.L. 76–783, 54 Stat.885, enacted September 16, 1940,[1]was the first peacetime conscription in United States history. This Selective Service Act required that men between the ages of 21 and 35 register with local draft boards. Later, when the U.S. entered World War II, all men aged 18 to 45 were made subject to military service, and all men aged 18 to 65 were required to register"
Selective Training and Service Act of 1940 - Wikipedia the free encyclopedia
Infer what you want, but these acts seem clear, which is why Scalia made such an effort to baffle with bullshit in Heller. Did he lie by omission?
What's your point here exactly?