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Just did a quick search and I see that Moses did indeed speak of a future prophet. Of course, from the Jewish perspective, this could have referred to any of a number of prophets - of which there have been many.Jesus said he was not the Messiah (anointed one) that the Jews were expecting. He was clear that he was anointed by God to proclaim the good news that sins are forgiven. He also mentioned briefly that he was the one foretold by Moses--and clearly Moses did not prophecy about a king in the line of David. If I recall correctly, Moses foretold of a prophet greater than he, with the definition of 'prophet' as not one who foretells the future, but one who speaks for God. Jesus was adamant that his authority to proclaim the forgiveness of sins did come from God.
Is there anything you have learned in Hebrew scriptures about the future prophet of whom Moses spoke?
I believe (but am not sure) Jesus may have been referencing Deuteronomy 18:15-22. I was wondering if Jesus might have been who Moses was thinking of, or if Hebrew teaching points to another prophet?No, I am unaware of a future prophet of which Moses spoke. It is a good topic to research (maybe tomorrow when I’m not so tired) and also to ask my rabbi when I got to services this Saturday.
I hadn't thought of David, but I was wondering if it might have been Jeremiah or Isaiah?I will ask my rabbi to which prophet Moses referred. David, perhaps.
I’ll ask my rabbi when I see him.I believe (but am not sure) Jesus may have been referencing Deuteronomy 18:15-22. I was wondering if Jesus might have been who Moses was thinking of, or if Hebrew teaching points to another prophet?
I don't recall saying that there is no prophetic perfect (it is actually a reading that is rabbinic in origin -- check out the Ibn Ezra on Iyov). But the speaker admits that it can be read as the past or the future and then moves to an issue of translation. He concedes that it could be the past and you don't?So there is no "prophetic perfect"? Prophets that prophecy of a future event, will supposedly, according to Brown, use the past tense, as if the event has already occurred. Is that a fabrication or a fallacious argument? Is it even true? Brown cites the pagan "prophet" Baalam to support his "prophetic perfect".
Isaiah occurred to me as well.I hadn't thought of David, but I was wondering if it might have been Jeremiah or Isaiah?
Moses speaks of a way to know when, in the future, when someone claims to be a prophet, whether that person is, indeed a prophet. Most understandings are that e is not speaking of any singular prophet but of any who claims that role, and there were many. The Chizkuni posits that he is speaking of Joshua and the Baal Haturim says that there is a reference in a later verse to Jeremiah.I believe (but am not sure) Jesus may have been referencing Deuteronomy 18:15-22. I was wondering if Jesus might have been who Moses was thinking of, or if Hebrew teaching points to another prophet?
I don't recall saying that there is no prophetic perfect (it is actually a reading that is rabbinic in origin -- check out the Ibn Ezra on Iyov). But the speaker admits that it can be read as the past or the future and then moves to an issue of translation. He concedes that it could be the past and you don't?
Scripture disagrees with you. Jesus referred to himself as I AM.
I appreciate you interest in learning why Jews do not believe Jesus was the Messiah.
Thank youI’ll ask my rabbi when I see him.
This information appreciated as well. Thank you.Moses speaks of a way to know when, in the future, when someone claims to be a prophet, whether that person is, indeed a prophet. Most understandings are that e is not speaking of any singular prophet but of any who claims that role, and there were many. The Chizkuni posits that he is speaking of Joshua and the Baal Haturim says that there is a reference in a later verse to Jeremiah.
Good, I love being challenged. Proceed.And if I want to learn more about why Jews do not believe Jesus was the Messiah? Keep in mind it was you who told me to read the thread title (which I had already read).
As you also suggest...I am challenging you.
I have. I am interested in what the Jewish faith teaches and their perspectives of the Hebrew Bible.Good, I love being challenged. Proceed.
It is a prophecy but I fear you think prophecies are, by definition, about the future. They aren't. What makes it about the past is the simple grammar of the verse. Why assume it is anything other than what it says it is? In the morning, if you like, I can show you the textual connections which tie it to Hezekiah.Is Isaiah 9:5/6 a prophecy or something else? A proclamation, an exaltation? If it's not a prophecy, then that would discredit the Christian argument that it's a prophetic perfect. Is there anything in the immediate context of the verse that would make it more likely to be Hezekiah in the past tense than in the future tense?
I'm not stopping you. Proceed.I have. I am interested in what the Jewish faith teaches and their perspectives of the Hebrew Bible.
Prophecy can be tricky. That's why there are so many explanations of The Book of Revelation of Jesus Christ. The Jews get confused about Prophecy of the Church age in the Old Testament.It is a prophecy but I fear you think prophecies are, by definition, about the future. They aren't. What makes it about the past is the simple grammar of the verse. Why assume it is anything other than what it says it is? In the morning, if you like, I can show you the textual connections which tie it to Hezekiah.
I proceeded while you weren't here. Lisa and rosends extended a hand.I'm not stopping you. Proceed.
Great. Carry on.I proceeded while you weren't here. Lisa and rosends extended a hand.
You start with the false assumption that the prophets were predicting events in the far future. They were not. They were current commentators. They were chastising the population and letting them know the direct consequence. Like a parent telling a child that if he does not eat his veggies, he won't get dessert. The oft quoted , out of context. Isaiah used a lot of parent-child imagery to describe the relationship between G-d and Israel.So there is no "prophetic perfect"? Prophets that prophecy of a future event, will supposedly, according to Brown, use the past tense, as if the event has already occurred. Is that a fabrication or a fallacious argument? Is it even true? Brown cites the pagan "prophet" Baalam to support his "prophetic perfect".
