pknopp
Diamond Member
- Jul 22, 2019
- 71,458
- 27,643
- 2,210
Absolutely. The government removed restrictions and in return the banks made bad loans for the government's benefit to buy votes.
No true. That is factually incorrect. The government removed no restrictions, that had anything to do with the crisis.
I can't believe there are still people ignorant of what went on.
Banks could not gamble with depositors money before Graham/Leach/Bliley.
You are talking about the separation of retail, commercial banks, and insurance.
Couple of problems with trying to blame the GLB Act, for the sub-prime crash.
First, the sub-prime bubble started in 1997, and the GLB act was passed in 1999.
![]()
So as you can see, the boom in housing prices clearly started in 1997.
The idea that somehow the GLB Act in 1999, somehow retroactively caused a housing bubble that started in 1997, seems unlikely.
Second, no other country had such a prohibition on Commercial and Retail banking. There was no comparable Glass-Steagall Act in Canada, Mexico, or anywhere in Europe, the UK, Japan, or anywhere else.
Yet the problem originated in the US, nowhere else that never had such regulations.
Third, the vast majority of all the banks that failed, were not, and would not, have been affected by these regulations.
Indymac. Retail bank only. Glass-Steagall would not have affected it.
Countrywide Financial. Commercial mortgage bank only.
WaMu, retail only.
Lehman Bro. Commercial only.
And the list of banks that were all single purpose banks, and failed, is large.
Very few banks would have been affected by Glass-Steagall. In fact, I only know of one specific bank that would have been affected, namely Citigroup.
There was one other bank that qualified as far as I know, and that bank did not fail.
So as I said, there is no regulations that were repealed, that had anything to do with the sub-prime crash.
If GLB Act had never happened, Countrywide Financial would not have been affected, and still would have failed. Same with Indymac, WaMu, Lehman Bro, and Bear Stearns. None of those banks were affected at all by the passing of GLB Act, nor if the GLB Act had never happened.
The problem was that banks were allowed to gamble with money that was not theirs. They were restrained from doing that with Glass/Steagal. The investment side and loan sides were separate.
Is it possible the banks could have still been corrupt without investing depositers money? Absolutely. The thing then though is when the bets went bad they only lose their money, not the money of the depositers. They get their money and the bank goes under.
We just covered this.
Indymac was not an investment bank. It was retail bank. Only a retail bank. If GLB Act, had never existed..... if Glass Steagall was still enforced 100%...... Indymac would not have been affected by this at all.
They were not doing both investment and loans. Same with Countrywide. Same with Lehman. Same with Bear Stearns.
Moreover, the entire rest of the world, never had the regulations you are talking about. If what you claimed was the problem... .if the big problem was "The problem was that banks were allowed to gamble with money that was not theirs. They were restrained from doing that with Glass/Steagal. The investment side and loan sides were separate."
if that was the problem, then why didn't the sub-prime crash originate in Europe, or the UK, or Canada, where they have NEVER HAD any such restriction?
And lastly, the sub-prime bubble started in 1997. GLB Act was passed in 1999. How did a policy enacted in 1999, cause a bubble to form in 1997?
The rest of the world actually enforces its financial laws when they get broken. There was no bubble in 1997.