Asclepias
Diamond Member
No dummy it was never against the law to free your personal slaves. What a retarded claim.Boom! There it is! There is the obvious question that makes you look even more uninformed.If he opposed slavery why did he have slaves?Wow. They you for unequivocally proving your extraordinary ignorance once and for all.Why you quote a slave owner as if he is credible is amusing to me.“Agriculture, manufactures, commerce, and navigation, the four pillars of our prosperity, are the most thriving when left most free to individual enterprise.” – Thomas Jefferson (March 4, 1801)
See, being that you dropped out of high school, you don't realize that Thomas Jefferson vehemently opposed slavery. In fact, even before we declared independence in 1776, Jefferson was proposing legislation in the Virginia state legislature to free slaves in Virginia.
Keep talking stupid. Every time you post you make everyone realize just how worthless your uninformed, uneducated opinion is. By the way - go ahead and ask the obvious question. Please. Do it. I'd love to show everyone just how stupid you are for the 482nd time.
The answer is - because it was against the law to free slaves back then (hence the reason that Jefferson kept introducing legislation). And unlike liberals of today, our founders were men of character who were law abiding citizens and followed the law even when they didn't agree with it. By the way - don't take my word for it. Do your own research. You'll see that it was against the law to free slaves.
Now, by the time George Washington had passed away (who also vehemently opposed slavery), it was legal to set them free upon your death (which is what George Washington did). And for the record, his slaves cried when he passed away. Why? Because he treated them so well and refused to allow anyone to hit them. He couldn't free them while he was alive, but he recognized it was wrong and he treated them with respect and dignity as did Thomas Jefferson.
Now, by the time Thomas Jefferson had passed away, the law had changed yet again. By that time, it was also permissible to free slaves upon your death but only if you have the money to pay for each one (I forget what the exact amount was) because society viewed these slaves as a "burden" when they were released and had no land, no money, no job, etc. Jefferson was over $50,000 in debt due to his charitable character and his love of country (he paid quite a bit out of pocket to help his city, state, and nation). So he simply didn't have the money to free any of his, unlike Washington who didn't have to pay at the time of his passing.
There are a few more obvious questions you can ask if you'd like to hit on those as well.
Did Virginia Law Prevent Thomas Jefferson From Freeing His Slaves?
"[T]hose persons who are disposed to emancipate their slaves may be empowered so to do, and the same hath been judged expedient under certain restrictions: Be it therefore enacted, That it shall hereafter be lawful for any person, by his or her last will and testament, or by any other instrument in writing, under his or her hand and seal, attested and proved in the county court by two witnesses, or acknowledged by the party in the court of the county where he or she resides to emancipate and set free, his or her slaves, or any of them, who shall thereupon be entirely and fully discharged from the performance of any contract entered into during servitude, and enjoy as full freedom as if they had been particularly named and freed by this act."