The dumbest thing about this case is that it gets commerce clause jurisprudence backwards. Instead of starting with the mandate, start with guaranteed issue. Does Congress have the authority under the commerce clause to mandate guaranteed issue? The answer is unquestionably yes. At that point, what's the deal with the mandate? It's something to further the end of guaranteed issue. Does it have a rational basis toward furthering that end? Yes. Does health insurance constitute significant interstate commerce? Yes. Under the line of cases following Wickard, the mandate fully falls in line with Congress's authority.