PostmodernProph
....fully immersed....
- Jan 27, 2014
- 6,366
- 383
No, dear; simply because you are full of fallacy.a marriage contract can simply be recorded with the public sector for full faith and credit purposes and to establish that Obligation of that Contract.nope; even State is Prohibited from impairing in the Obligation of Contracts.????....why do you say "nope" and then state the fact which makes it a yup?......the recording with the state is what creates the ability to enforce the agreement against persons other than the man and woman getting married.......
???.....yes.....that is why I say the state imposes recognition of the marriage upon those not a party to the contract.....if we could ignore the agreement that two people entered into there would be no issue......it is the act of the state in certifying it that causes the imposition......
let me try a third time to clarify for you.....to put it simply....THAT HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH WHAT WE ARE DISCUSSING!......there, did that help?........
No state shall enter into any treaty, alliance, or confederation; grant letters of marque and reprisal; coin money; emit bills of credit; make anything but gold and silver coin a tender in payment of debts; pass any bill of attainder, ex post facto law, or law impairing the obligation of contracts, or grant any title of nobility.
omigorsh this is so stupid......somebody should impose a gold standard on your head........