Bfgrn
Gold Member
- Apr 4, 2009
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. All you have to do is explain how selling homes to low-income people and minorities were the sole cause of a worldwide financial meltdown
literally speaking it was not the sole cause, it was the primary cause which is what Sowell said!
It wasn't the primary cause. As a matter of FACT, it was a NON factor.
Wrong asshole. virtually everyone acknowledges that sub-prime mortgages were the cause of the problem.
WRONG. The housing crisis was not the fault of poor people. It was not the fault of government. It was the fault of the PRIVATE sector and speculators.
“Flip This House”: Investor Speculation and the Housing Bubble
At the peak of the boom in 2006, over a third of all U.S. home purchase lending was made to people who already owned at least one house. In the four states with the most pronounced housing cycles, the investor share was nearly half—45 percent. Investor shares roughly doubled between 2000 and 2006. While some of these loans went to borrowers with “just” two homes, the increase in percentage terms is largest among those owning three or more properties. In 2006, Arizona, California, Florida, and Nevada investors owning three or more properties were responsible for nearly 20 percent of originations, almost triple their share in 2000.
Because investors don’t plan to own properties for long, they care much more about reducing their down-payments than reducing their interest rates. The expansion of the nonprime mortgage market during the 2000s provided the perfect opportunity for optimistic investors to get low-down-payment credit, albeit at high interest rates..., investors were far more likely than owner-occupants to use nonprime credit to make their purchases, especially at the peak. ...
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