NYcarbineer
Diamond Member
I know reading hurts your brain, and I can understand that, you're not used to actually using it for things, but if you bother to read my text, you can clearly see the south inconsistently voting for either party until 2000, at which point they turned red and stayed that way.FaunFalse. In 1924, the year referenced in the OP, the states that supported the confederacy during the civil war (the conservative states that voted for Trump in '16) voted Democratic.Oh, a believer of the "Party Switch" that never happened.Democrats were not liberal in 1924.
Democrats are liberal in 2017. Ideologies switched after FDR. That's why now southern states (conservative in ideology) cute Republican now, no longer Democrat.
There's no consistency to the election trends in the first place: Historical U.S. Presidential Elections 1789-2016
In fact, when someone wins, most of the time, it's practically the entire US that voted for them.
The states that opposed slavery voted for the Republican.
(most of these same liberal states voted for Hillary).
I just gave you a history lesson. This thread bike up on the conservatives' faces.
KKK was founded by conservatives (southern democrats) and continues to be loved by conservatives (today's Republicans).
deanrd
Ahahaha. Cute, okay, I'll play your game. I've been waiting to give leftists a beating, anyway, and you look like volunteers.
The theory you're trying to appeal to, while in the least informed way possible, is the "Goldwater" theory, which you apparently are trying to make appear even more sudden than it was claimed to be originally, by making the 'change' way earlier.
I suppose I'll refer to Texas, Arkansas, Louisiana, Mississippi, and South Carolina as "The South", since that seems to be what most people are referring to in those cases.
Firstly, the southern states didn't simply "Stop voting democrat", it only became less frequent in 1964, and it would be more accurate to say that "They stopped voting reliably for Democrats". Although, only the majority of these states voted Republican, from 1968-1992, and it was only in 5/7 of said elections. Although that's a change, Maine and California voted Republican in six of those elections.
The way the theory goes, it was in 1968 that the strategy starts.
The very next election, Nixon wins practically none of the south. Of the states that voted for Goldwater, only one voted for Nixon.
Sure, the next election he wins the south. On the other hand, he only missed DC and Maine, so practically every state was won by the Republican.
Next election, the entire south voted for Jimmy Carter. Clearly they've all gone Republican because of Racism, thanks to Goldwater... oh wait. Although, I do find it interesting that it's nearly an even split between east and west.
Oh look, the next time they go red... practically every state did as well... again. Ronald Reagan curbstomped one of the worst presidents in history. We're so surprised. Well, except Georgia.
Oh, the next election, Reagan sweeps the map again. Sure, the south voted red again, but so did nearly the entire rest of the United states.
In 1988, the south is more red than the rest of the nation, but it only lasts for THIS election.
Because Arkansas, Georgia, and Louisiana all go Democrat, making the south a nearly even split, much like the rest of the US.
Now, the south is more red than the rest of the Nation, and only now does it become a trend, in 1996, LONG after Goldwater ran, lost, later kicked the bucket. Though, Louisiana is still blue.
2000 is the first non-landslide victory in which all states that voted for Goldwater voted for the Republican candidate, and continued voting Republican from that point onward. Your theory holds no water.
Your maps clearly show the shift of the South from Democrat to Republican, and you don't even know it.
Make sure you take a break after reading this post, don't want you to hurt yourself too much.
Republicans won the former Confederate states of the South in how many elections from 1964 on?
Hint: 12 out of 14, and only lost them to Wallace in 1968 because he was more segregationist than Nixon.
Compare that to the 16 elections prior to 1964.