RoccoR
Gold Member
RE: Palestine Today
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,
Not at all no tap dancing involved at all. Although you might be showing signs of the Ostrich Effect.
Your posting is actually questioning the extent to which the two treaties cited are all that is necessary.
Let's just think about that for a moment. Which state parties had control over what territory and when? Who's in charge?
Certainly, by no stretch of the imagination are the Arab Palestinians recorded a being in charge or anything for the previous 800 years anyway... So if we subtract the Arab Palestinians out of the equation of sovereign control, then who had what control?
Most Respectfully,
R
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,
Not at all no tap dancing involved at all. Although you might be showing signs of the Ostrich Effect.
Handbook for International Law • Occupation and Prescription said:Page #38: Terra nullius can be acquired by any state (not by a private person or company, unless acting for the state) that has the intention to claim sovereignty and occupies it by exercising effective and continued control. Occupation is a peaceful means of acquiring territory.
Page #40: Because such treaties transfer sovereignty, at least de facto, they should be distinguished from leases granted to foreign states under the domestic law of the grantor state, such as for military bases, although today the land may be made merely ‘available.' Such leases involve no transfer of sovereignty.
(COMMENT)You are still dancing around my posts.
Your posting is actually questioning the extent to which the two treaties cited are all that is necessary.
● By Treaty the agree upon boundry between Jordan and Israel encapsulated the West Bank (including Jerusalem). SO, the Timore Argument is that the Hashemite Kingdom did not actually have sovereign control over that territory.
● By Treaty the agree upon boundry between Egypt and Israel encapsulated the Gaza Strip. SO, the Timore Argument is that the when Egypt disolved the All Palestine Government and then entered into a treaty with Israel, Egypt did not actually have sovereign control over that territory.
● By Treaty the agree upon boundry between Egypt and Israel encapsulated the Gaza Strip. SO, the Timore Argument is that the when Egypt disolved the All Palestine Government and then entered into a treaty with Israel, Egypt did not actually have sovereign control over that territory.
Let's just think about that for a moment. Which state parties had control over what territory and when? Who's in charge?
Certainly, by no stretch of the imagination are the Arab Palestinians recorded a being in charge or anything for the previous 800 years anyway... So if we subtract the Arab Palestinians out of the equation of sovereign control, then who had what control?
Most Respectfully,
R
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