2aguy
Diamond Member
- Jul 19, 2014
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I'm not sure I'd define it quite that way. More precisely, the prefatory clause states the purpose of the amendment: the need of a well-regulated militia. I would not construe that to mean that you do not have an individual right to possess arms - but I don't believe that said right is immune from reasonable regulation.
My turn to ask a question. If the 2ndA was meant as you believe, why didn't the founding fathers simply write it that way? They could have simply written: The right to bear arms being a natural right, the right of each individual to bear arms shall not be abridged.
We have all the regulations we need to stop, arrest and lock up criminals…the problem? Democrat prosecutors and judges let them out…