Iceman
Rookie
- Nov 4, 2013
- 2,227
- 131
I don't apologize for misreading your comment, or admit any wrong. It is late, you are complicating a simple issue. And have yet to explain how our current immigration system is unequal before the law.
Migration of cultures that have a proven record of not valuing the rule of law or equality before the law, or likewise fail to assimilate into a culture that recognizes the rule of law/equality before the law, reasonably hinders the rule of law/equality before the law by diluting the political culture of a country away from the rule of law/equality before the law.
Hmmm, "It is late." A great excuse for yourself, however, not applied to me when making your assessment of stupidity. Funny how that worked out.
Now you are getting off track. Now we are getting into YOUR view on what immigration should be. I could personally care less.
I am talking about US immigration law. Before 1965, you could discriminate based on nationality, after 1965, you can't.
Prior to 1965, there was an unequal application of law based on your nationality, post 1965, there is an equal application of immigration law based on nationality.
I support pre 1965 immigration and unequal application of immigration law based on nationality, I support discrimination based on nationality.
You asked for an example to where I object to equality under the law. Current immigration law is an example. I object to current immigration law due to it's equal application of immigration law based on nationality.
Can't make it any more clear or concise for you. I can give more examples at a later time. I thought this would be a straight forward answer, apparently it took up two pages and two hours. A rather futile exercise if you ask me. Don't know what your point was other than to be an aspie asshole.