Who Are The Palestinains?

[aris2chat]

montelatici, et al,

Wow! What in the world is the matter with you?

I see, so Indian passports that also has British Passport on cover mean that Indians were not Indians when it said Indian on the citizenship page? Look closely again you ignoramus.

http://1.bp.blogspot.com/-MwRj-Ax_h-I/USoWWdiWT7I/AAAAAAAAAGk/gYSQH7Oz3K8/s1600/13.jpg

(COMMENT)

It is clearly a British Passport.

The citizenship is Palestinian - based on the "Palestinian Citizenship Order."

So, at one point, they were --- most probably --- Arabs, that were citizens of the Ottoman Empire and then, after the fall, the Republic of Turkey.

The Mandatory issues Passports for the citizens of the Mandate. This was authorized by the Palestine Order in Council. The "Palestinian" citizenship means that the person was a citizen of the Mandate of Palestine.

India, is a separate issue. India was a Commonwealth of the Crown, and formal part of the British Empire. You are mixing apples and oranges.

Most Respectfully,
R

I do believe that the Palestinians in trans Jordan were also given British passports with Jordanian as their citizenship right up until 1949 when they declared their independence

Trans-Jordan used the same British passports until Jordan became independent.
Palestine is a european name given to the region. It is not a name that was used till the mandate, even then most arabs called themselves syria, arab, the area they emigrated from, their tribe or the village their family came from.

Arab maps from the 7th C through the Ottoman do not use the name palestine. Only a few byzantine maps use the roman term palaestina, as in syria palaestina or by palaestine I through IV, or the greek version philistia. Other wise it is a series of small districts named for the major town.
European maps made after the arab conquest used the term of palestine, from the roman name, for an unmarked region in the southern province of syria.

 

[toastman]

Why do you make this harder than it is. You are making things up. Per the Palestine Order in Council which established Palestinian citizenship for the former Ottoman Subjects of Palestine it is crystal clear:

10 August 1922
PALESTINE.

_______
The Palestine Order in Council.

AT THE COURT AT BUCKINGHAM PALACE,
The 10th day of August, 1922.
PRESENT,
THE KING'S MOST EXCELLENT MAJESTY.
LORD CHAMBERLAIN.
LORD STAMFORDHAM.
MR. SECRETARY SHORTT.
MR. MCCURDY.

"For the purposes of this Order and pending the introduction of an Order in Council regulating Palestinian citizenship, the following persons shall be deemed to be Palestinian citizens:--

(a)Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the date of commencement of this Order.

(b)All persons of other than Turkish nationality habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the said date, who shall within two calendar months of the said date make application for Palestinian citizenship in such form and before such officer as may be prescribed by the High Commissioner". - See more at: Mandate for Palestine - The Palestine Order in LoN Council - Mandatory order (10 August 1922)

So since "Palestine" was never a country, then "Palestinian Citizenship" simply meant you became a British subject in the territory of Palestine.

Thanks for informing us that "Palestinian Citizenship" was a British invention in the early 1900's.

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Citizen of what country??

 

[aris2chat]

montelatici, et al,

Wow! What in the world is the matter with you?

I see, so Indian passports that also has British Passport on cover mean that Indians were not Indians when it said Indian on the citizenship page? Look closely again you ignoramus.

http://1.bp.blogspot.com/-MwRj-Ax_h-I/USoWWdiWT7I/AAAAAAAAAGk/gYSQH7Oz3K8/s1600/13.jpg

(COMMENT)

It is clearly a British Passport.

The citizenship is Palestinian - based on the "Palestinian Citizenship Order."

So, at one point, they were --- most probably --- Arabs, that were citizens of the Ottoman Empire and then, after the fall, the Republic of Turkey.

The Mandatory issues Passports for the citizens of the Mandate. This was authorized by the Palestine Order in Council. The "Palestinian" citizenship means that the person was a citizen of the Mandate of Palestine.

India, is a separate issue. India was a Commonwealth of the Crown, and formal part of the British Empire. You are mixing apples and oranges.

Most Respectfully,
R

Palestinian citizens were defined in two places.

Drawing up the framework of nationality, Article 30 of the Treaty of Lausanne stated:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in territory which in accordance with the provisions of the present Treaty is detached from Turkey will become ipso facto, in the conditions laid down by the local law, nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred.”​

---------------------------
The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

To qualify for Palestinian nationality by virtue of this paragraph, the person had to be: (1) a Turkish subject, or citizen; and (2) habitually resident in Palestine. While Palestinian nationality in accordance with international law (the Treaty of Lausanne) was created, as shown above, on 6 August 1924, the same nationality was effectively created on 1 August 1925 based on domestic law (the Palestinian Citizenship Order)

Contrary to popular propaganda, the mandate was not Palestine. The mandate was temporarily assigned to Palestine to hold Palestine in trust on the behalf of the Palestinians. Palestine and the Palestinians existed before and after the mandate.

Not before them mandate, after the mandate had begun.
Mandate was formally confirmed by the Council of the League of Nations on 24 July 1922
Treaty of Lausanne, July 24, 1923 does not mention palestine.

 

[aris2chat]

P F Tinmore; et al,

You just refuse to listen.

Correct, Palestine was held in trust by the mandate. The mandate was not Palestine.

Palestine the what?

(COMMENT)

When you use the word Palestine, you are saying -- in shortened form -- The Mandate of Palestine. It is both a document and a place.

The territories to which the Mandate for Palestine = Palestine​

The limits of this Order are the territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies, hereinafter described as Palestine.

SOURCE: The Palestine Order in Council, 1922

When you say you are a Citizen of Palestine, prior to 15 May 1948, you were actually saying is that you are a Citizen of the Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies.

You are trying to make this harder than it is.

Remember, Palestine (Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied) was a "legal entity" but not a sovereign state. It would not become a sovereign state until November 1988; and even the Palestinian Authority questions that --- when it raises the issue of dismantlement.

And I ask again, what is the agenda you are trying to support in this line of discussion?

Most Respectfully,
R

Mandate was divided, first part was an arab/palestinian transjordan, the remainder was then split against into arab and jew which the UN offered the partition of Israel and a palestine. Arabs rejected the plan but with the end of the mandate the state of Israel was declared. Arabs picked war instead of a palestine. They created the refugees of both many of the arabs in the mandate, and the majority of the jews from arab lands. The jews were absorbed into Israel. The palestinians were not absorbed by the states that took them in, by the state that attacked Israel or the states that refused the creation of a palestine at the UN.
Then after refusing the palestinians a state, they force the UN to be responsible for the care of the refugees.

 

[montelatici]

P F Tinmore; et al,

You just refuse to listen.

Palestine the what?

(COMMENT)

When you use the word Palestine, you are saying -- in shortened form -- The Mandate of Palestine. It is both a document and a place.

The territories to which the Mandate for Palestine = Palestine​

The limits of this Order are the territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies, hereinafter described as Palestine.

SOURCE: The Palestine Order in Council, 1922

When you say you are a Citizen of Palestine, prior to 15 May 1948, you were actually saying is that you are a Citizen of the Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies.

You are trying to make this harder than it is.

Remember, Palestine (Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied) was a "legal entity" but not a sovereign state. It would not become a sovereign state until November 1988; and even the Palestinian Authority questions that --- when it raises the issue of dismantlement.

And I ask again, what is the agenda you are trying to support in this line of discussion?

Most Respectfully,
R

Mandate was divided, first part was an arab/palestinian transjordan, the remainder was then split against into arab and jew which the UN offered the partition of Israel and a palestine. Arabs rejected the plan but with the end of the mandate the state of Israel was declared. Arabs picked war instead of a palestine. They created the refugees of both many of the arabs in the mandate, and the majority of the jews from arab lands. The jews were absorbed into Israel. The palestinians were not absorbed by the states that took them in, by the state that attacked Israel or the states that refused the creation of a palestine at the UN.
Then after refusing the palestinians a state, they force the UN to be responsible for the care of the refugees.

Goebbels would have been proud of you. The UN offered to take most of the land away from the people that lived there to give it to European settlers. What a deal. You people are

 

[Sally]

P F Tinmore; et al,

You just refuse to listen.


(COMMENT)

When you use the word Palestine, you are saying -- in shortened form -- The Mandate of Palestine. It is both a document and a place.

The territories to which the Mandate for Palestine = Palestine​

When you say you are a Citizen of Palestine, prior to 15 May 1948, you were actually saying is that you are a Citizen of the Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies.

You are trying to make this harder than it is.

Remember, Palestine (Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied) was a "legal entity" but not a sovereign state. It would not become a sovereign state until November 1988; and even the Palestinian Authority questions that --- when it raises the issue of dismantlement.

And I ask again, what is the agenda you are trying to support in this line of discussion?

Most Respectfully,
R

Mandate was divided, first part was an arab/palestinian transjordan, the remainder was then split against into arab and jew which the UN offered the partition of Israel and a palestine. Arabs rejected the plan but with the end of the mandate the state of Israel was declared. Arabs picked war instead of a palestine. They created the refugees of both many of the arabs in the mandate, and the majority of the jews from arab lands. The jews were absorbed into Israel. The palestinians were not absorbed by the states that took them in, by the state that attacked Israel or the states that refused the creation of a palestine at the UN.
Then after refusing the palestinians a state, they force the UN to be responsible for the care of the refugees.

Goebbels would have been proud of you. The UN offered to take most of the land away from the people that lived there to give it to European settlers. What a deal. You people are

Actually he would have been very, very proud of you. Say where is the guy who was posting under this screen name the other week or so who said his wife comes from Spain? I don't think anyone believes that Haniya has a wife, nor do I think any of the Iranian gang here in the U.S. has a wife from Spain -- Tehran or Qom maybe, but not Spain. It seems like people must be like playing musical chairs here to be posting all day long trying to demonize Israel. Say I wonder how many innocent people their brethren have murdered this week, or don't they care?

 

[MJB12741]

So true that what the Arab countries did to make their Palestinians making them refugees is hard to forgive. But then, it was the Palestinians themselves who in their hatred for Israel allowed this to happen to them. It's called Palestinian mentality.

P F Tinmore; et al,

You just refuse to listen.

Palestine the what?

(COMMENT)

When you use the word Palestine, you are saying -- in shortened form -- The Mandate of Palestine. It is both a document and a place.

The territories to which the Mandate for Palestine = Palestine​

The limits of this Order are the territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies, hereinafter described as Palestine.

SOURCE: The Palestine Order in Council, 1922

When you say you are a Citizen of Palestine, prior to 15 May 1948, you were actually saying is that you are a Citizen of the Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies.

You are trying to make this harder than it is.

Remember, Palestine (Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied) was a "legal entity" but not a sovereign state. It would not become a sovereign state until November 1988; and even the Palestinian Authority questions that --- when it raises the issue of dismantlement.

And I ask again, what is the agenda you are trying to support in this line of discussion?

Most Respectfully,
R

Mandate was divided, first part was an arab/palestinian transjordan, the remainder was then split against into arab and jew which the UN offered the partition of Israel and a palestine. Arabs rejected the plan but with the end of the mandate the state of Israel was declared. Arabs picked war instead of a palestine. They created the refugees of both many of the arabs in the mandate, and the majority of the jews from arab lands. The jews were absorbed into Israel. The palestinians were not absorbed by the states that took them in, by the state that attacked Israel or the states that refused the creation of a palestine at the UN.
Then after refusing the palestinians a state, they force the UN to be responsible for the care of the refugees.

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore; et al,

You just refuse to listen.

Palestine the what?

(COMMENT)

When you use the word Palestine, you are saying -- in shortened form -- The Mandate of Palestine. It is both a document and a place.

The territories to which the Mandate for Palestine = Palestine​

The limits of this Order are the territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies, hereinafter described as Palestine.

SOURCE: The Palestine Order in Council, 1922

When you say you are a Citizen of Palestine, prior to 15 May 1948, you were actually saying is that you are a Citizen of the Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies.

You are trying to make this harder than it is.

Remember, Palestine (Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied) was a "legal entity" but not a sovereign state. It would not become a sovereign state until November 1988; and even the Palestinian Authority questions that --- when it raises the issue of dismantlement.

And I ask again, what is the agenda you are trying to support in this line of discussion?

Most Respectfully,
R

Why do you make this harder than it is. You are making things up. Per the Palestine Order in Council which established Palestinian citizenship for the former Ottoman Subjects of Palestine it is crystal clear:

10 August 1922
PALESTINE.

_______
The Palestine Order in Council.

AT THE COURT AT BUCKINGHAM PALACE,
The 10th day of August, 1922.
PRESENT,
THE KING'S MOST EXCELLENT MAJESTY.
LORD CHAMBERLAIN.
LORD STAMFORDHAM.
MR. SECRETARY SHORTT.
MR. MCCURDY.

"For the purposes of this Order and pending the introduction of an Order in Council regulating Palestinian citizenship, the following persons shall be deemed to be Palestinian citizens:--

(a)Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the date of commencement of this Order.

(b)All persons of other than Turkish nationality habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the said date, who shall within two calendar months of the said date make application for Palestinian citizenship in such form and before such officer as may be prescribed by the High Commissioner". - See more at: Mandate for Palestine - The Palestine Order in LoN Council - Mandatory order (10 August 1922)

Then explain why they were issued with British passports. You yourself have posted pictures of British Palestinian passports issued to citizens of trans Jordan. If you read your link carefully you will see that it applies mostly to those people living in trans Jordan and Syria who were upset and angry at being lumped in with the mongrel muslims in what was to be Israel west of the Jordan river.

History is not your strong point is it, along with Maths and English. How are you on the sciences ?

 

[Phoenall]

Why do you make this harder than it is. You are making things up. Per the Palestine Order in Council which established Palestinian citizenship for the former Ottoman Subjects of Palestine it is crystal clear:

10 August 1922
PALESTINE.

_______
The Palestine Order in Council.

AT THE COURT AT BUCKINGHAM PALACE,
The 10th day of August, 1922.
PRESENT,
THE KING'S MOST EXCELLENT MAJESTY.
LORD CHAMBERLAIN.
LORD STAMFORDHAM.
MR. SECRETARY SHORTT.
MR. MCCURDY.

"For the purposes of this Order and pending the introduction of an Order in Council regulating Palestinian citizenship, the following persons shall be deemed to be Palestinian citizens:--

(a)Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the date of commencement of this Order.

(b)All persons of other than Turkish nationality habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the said date, who shall within two calendar months of the said date make application for Palestinian citizenship in such form and before such officer as may be prescribed by the High Commissioner". - See more at: Mandate for Palestine - The Palestine Order in LoN Council - Mandatory order (10 August 1922)

So since "Palestine" was never a country, then "Palestinian Citizenship" simply meant you became a British subject in the territory of Palestine.

Thanks for informing us that "Palestinian Citizenship" was a British invention in the early 1900's.

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this

See here for details

 

[Phoenall]

Why do you make this harder than it is. You are making things up. Per the Palestine Order in Council which established Palestinian citizenship for the former Ottoman Subjects of Palestine it is crystal clear:

10 August 1922
PALESTINE.

_______
The Palestine Order in Council.

AT THE COURT AT BUCKINGHAM PALACE,
The 10th day of August, 1922.
PRESENT,
THE KING'S MOST EXCELLENT MAJESTY.
LORD CHAMBERLAIN.
LORD STAMFORDHAM.
MR. SECRETARY SHORTT.
MR. MCCURDY.

"For the purposes of this Order and pending the introduction of an Order in Council regulating Palestinian citizenship, the following persons shall be deemed to be Palestinian citizens:--

(a)Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the date of commencement of this Order.

(b)All persons of other than Turkish nationality habitually resident in the territory of Palestine at the said date, who shall within two calendar months of the said date make application for Palestinian citizenship in such form and before such officer as may be prescribed by the High Commissioner". - See more at: Mandate for Palestine - The Palestine Order in LoN Council - Mandatory order (10 August 1922)

So since "Palestine" was never a country, then "Palestinian Citizenship" simply meant you became a British subject in the territory of Palestine.

Thanks for informing us that "Palestinian Citizenship" was a British invention in the early 1900's.

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

At the same time it does not state that Palestine was or is a nation with the authority to issue passports of their own. Which is why up until 1949 the passports for all the British mandate of Palestine were issued by Britain

 

[Phoenall]

What I do is that you don't appear to be able to read.

It seems that it is you with that problem as until 1949 when Israel and Jordan both declared independence of the mandate the passports for both nations were BRITISH PALESTINE ones

 

[P F Tinmore]

So since "Palestine" was never a country, then "Palestinian Citizenship" simply meant you became a British subject in the territory of Palestine.

Thanks for informing us that "Palestinian Citizenship" was a British invention in the early 1900's.

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this.

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.

With regard to nationality of the inhabitants of mandated territories, in general, the Council of the League of Nations adopted the following resolution on 23 April 1923:

“(1) The status of the native inhabitants of a Mandated territory is distinct from that of the nationals of the Mandatory Power....
(2) The native inhabitants of a Mandated territory are not invested with the nationality of the Mandatory Power by means of the protection extended to them…”92​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

 

[Hossfly]

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this.

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.

With regard to nationality of the inhabitants of mandated territories, in general, the Council of the League of Nations adopted the following resolution on 23 April 1923:

“(1) The status of the native inhabitants of a Mandated territory is distinct from that of the nationals of the Mandatory Power....
(2) The native inhabitants of a Mandated territory are not invested with the nationality of the Mandatory Power by means of the protection extended to them…”92​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

Tinmore, every time in the future you bring up those feeble arguments I will counter with the claim that Britain considers the American Revolution, illegal, null and void and that we are still British subjects. Get the point?

 

[Phoenall]

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this.

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.

With regard to nationality of the inhabitants of mandated territories, in general, the Council of the League of Nations adopted the following resolution on 23 April 1923:

“(1) The status of the native inhabitants of a Mandated territory is distinct from that of the nationals of the Mandatory Power....
(2) The native inhabitants of a Mandated territory are not invested with the nationality of the Mandatory Power by means of the protection extended to them…”92​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

Would that be this Palestine that the Treaty of Lausanne delineated, that was set aside as the reconstituted NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS

Note the extent of this Palestine which is 70% bigger than the Palestine you keep rambling on about.


Try reading your link again, specially this part " The native inhabitants of a Mandated territory are not invested with the nationality of the Mandatory Power by means of the protection extended to them" In plain English it means that even though the mandatory power was Britain the inhabitants did not become British citizens, but British Palestinian citizens.

By the way Britain occupied Palestine right up until midnight on May 13 1948

 

[toastman]

P F Tinmore; et al,

You just refuse to listen.


(COMMENT)

When you use the word Palestine, you are saying -- in shortened form -- The Mandate of Palestine. It is both a document and a place.

The territories to which the Mandate for Palestine = Palestine​

When you say you are a Citizen of Palestine, prior to 15 May 1948, you were actually saying is that you are a Citizen of the Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applies.

You are trying to make this harder than it is.

Remember, Palestine (Territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied) was a "legal entity" but not a sovereign state. It would not become a sovereign state until November 1988; and even the Palestinian Authority questions that --- when it raises the issue of dismantlement.

And I ask again, what is the agenda you are trying to support in this line of discussion?

Most Respectfully,
R

Mandate was divided, first part was an arab/palestinian transjordan, the remainder was then split against into arab and jew which the UN offered the partition of Israel and a palestine. Arabs rejected the plan but with the end of the mandate the state of Israel was declared. Arabs picked war instead of a palestine. They created the refugees of both many of the arabs in the mandate, and the majority of the jews from arab lands. The jews were absorbed into Israel. The palestinians were not absorbed by the states that took them in, by the state that attacked Israel or the states that refused the creation of a palestine at the UN.
Then after refusing the palestinians a state, they force the UN to be responsible for the care of the refugees.

Goebbels would have been proud of you. The UN offered to take most of the land away from the people that lived there to give it to European settlers. What a deal. You people are

Well now they are asking for the 67' borders which is LESS territory than the original partition plan.
The war that the 5 Arab armies started against Israel is looking like a bigger fuck up every day. Whoops!

 

[toastman]

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this.

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.

With regard to nationality of the inhabitants of mandated territories, in general, the Council of the League of Nations adopted the following resolution on 23 April 1923:

“(1) The status of the native inhabitants of a Mandated territory is distinct from that of the nationals of the Mandatory Power....
(2) The native inhabitants of a Mandated territory are not invested with the nationality of the Mandatory Power by means of the protection extended to them…”92​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

The Treaty of Lausanne had NOTHING TO DO WITH PALESTINE.
Palestine is mentioned a total of ZERO times in the treaty.

You can't just make up history as you go along Tinmore.

 

[MJB12741]

Very interesting. So then are you saying even land thieving squatters without any deeds to Israel's ancient land are considered as "legally the native population of Palestine"???

Nowhere does it say anything about British Subject, it states Palestinian Citizen. Why do you make things up when your long held beliefs are proven false?

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this.

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.

With regard to nationality of the inhabitants of mandated territories, in general, the Council of the League of Nations adopted the following resolution on 23 April 1923:

“(1) The status of the native inhabitants of a Mandated territory is distinct from that of the nationals of the Mandatory Power....
(2) The native inhabitants of a Mandated territory are not invested with the nationality of the Mandatory Power by means of the protection extended to them…”92​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

 

[Hossfly]

Very interesting. So then are you saying even land thieving squatters without any deeds to Israel's ancient land are considered as "legally the native population of Palestine"???

Want to retract before I destroy your whole argument again, suffice it to say why was the order proclaimed by the King of Britain and his government if it was not because they were actually British subjects. Even their passports state BRITAIN so can you explain this.

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

In a nutshell, according PF "Yassir" Tinmore, YES.

 

[MJB12741]

Amazing what we can learn here. Just wait you Zionists until I go tell all my neighbors.

Very interesting. So then are you saying even land thieving squatters without any deeds to Israel's ancient land are considered as "legally the native population of Palestine"???

First off, the order of 1922 was when Britain was the occupation. Britain occupied Palestine from 1917 to 1924 when it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. The Treaty of Lausanne, separated Palestine from the dissolved empire.

By that time Palestine's international borders, and the nationality and citizenship of the Palestinians were already defined. Britain's position changed from the occupation of the territory to the mandate for Palestine.

The Palestinians were not British.




Those Palestinian citizens were legally the native population of Palestine. It does not matter where they were from or how long they had been there. Those things are irrelevant to the Palestinian's legal status.

Britain issued the passports to give protection to the Palestinians while traveling outside of the country.

In a nutshell, according PF "Yassir" Tinmore, YES.

 

[aris2chat]

Ottomans were defeated in 1917. Britain might have been in control but the mandate had no yet begun.
Till the mandate was created formally in 1923 there was no palestine. The term was not part of the Ottoman names of the sanjuks. It is a european term for a general region of the holy land and neighboring territory. A term given by the romans as an insult to the jews for their rebellion of roman suzerainty. Some bibles translated to local tongue used the roman term for the general area of holy land.

Herodotus wrote of a 'district of Syria', called Palaistinê
Approximately a century later, Aristotle used a similar definition in Meteorology, writing "Again if, as is fabled, there is a lake in Palestine, such that if you bind a man or beast and throw it in it floats and does not sink
Statius, as well as Roman-era Greek writers such as Plutarch, Roman-era Judean writers such as Philo of Alexandria and Josephus.
Byzantine the region (Syria Palestine, Samaria, and the Galilee) was named Palaestina I, II, III. West coast of the Arabian Peninsula as Palaestina Salutaris.
~wiki