- Thread starter
- #141
Yes but Israel's enemies refer to some "Palestinian land" in Israel's land. What I just don't understand is when did Israel's ancient land become this "Palestinian land" they are referrring to?
Ottomans were defeated in 1917. Britain might have been in control but the mandate had no yet begun.
Till the mandate was created formally in 1923 there was no palestine. The term was not part of the Ottoman names of the sanjuks. It is a european term for a general region of the holy land and neighboring territory. A term given by the romans as an insult to the jews for their rebellion of roman suzerainty. Some bibles translated to local tongue used the roman term for the general area of holy land.
Herodotus wrote of a 'district of Syria', called Palaistinê
Approximately a century later, Aristotle used a similar definition in Meteorology, writing "Again if, as is fabled, there is a lake in Palestine, such that if you bind a man or beast and throw it in it floats and does not sink
Statius, as well as Roman-era Greek writers such as Plutarch, Roman-era Judean writers such as Philo of Alexandria and Josephus.
Byzantine the region (Syria Palestine, Samaria, and the Galilee) was named Palaestina I, II, III. West coast of the Arabian Peninsula as Palaestina Salutaris.
~wiki