Since when are invading / colonizing Turks followed later by Egyptian, Syrian and Lebanese squatters / land grabbers a "native population"?No land was transferred to the Jews for a Jewish state. Your so called national home was the right for Jews to obtain Palestinian citizenship.
Well, no. The land was given over (as you, yourself, has stated many times) to the inhabitants who, through following certain specific steps, grew into the right of self-governance and self-determination. Those people were -- quite specifically -- the Jewish people, who, by a pre-existing, historical claim, were granted the right by the authorities of the time to re-constitute their national homeland.
The flaw in your argument is in the mistaken assumption that the Jewish people are somehow excluded from having rights greater than "citizenship" when the documents of the time clearly state the political rights to a nation granted to the Jewish people.
What pre-existing historical claim did the European Zionists have? The native inhabitants would have a stronger claim than Europeans, don't you think? Because the native inhabitants converted to Christianity and Islam, does not change their status as the native inhabitants. The native americans that have converted to Christianity are no less "native" than before they converted.