P F Tinmore
Diamond Member
- Dec 6, 2009
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I did not say all villages. And I did not mentioned Arabs. That is not relevant.Indeed, the Ottomans had a land rights system. The "West" has a land ownership system. You are always talking apples and oranges trying to conform one system to the other.Do you mean like working for someone else on your own farm?
You mean like the Ottoman land system?
Interesting question, though. Virtually all of Palestinian cities, towns, and villages predate the Ottoman Empire. Who were the owners then? How did the Ottomans and its rich friends get to "own" that land?
Have you ever heard of the word EMPIRE?
Do you know what the word Empire means?
Are you sure that ALL the Arab villages predate the take over by the Ottoman Empire?
I would love to see the documentation on it.
As we know, the Ottomans, and then the British, kept records of a lot of things.
By the way, Hevron and Sfad were not Arab villages. But became such after the Hashemites kicked all the Jews from them.
Jewish Quarter of Jerusalem was not an Arab Quarter. It is now, after the Hashemites kicked all the Jews in 1948.
You pick and choose.
It is ARABS, and not Palestinians, who lived amongst the indigenous Jews during the Ottoman Empire.
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Surely there were newer villages but that dos not change the status of older villages.
What are you trying to imply here?