Sixties Fan
Diamond Member
- Mar 6, 2017
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And still correct - the boycott is a blatant war on Jews around the world, not just in Israel.Default argument, it is all a war on Jews.All this pseudo intellectual debate is to deflect from the fact that,
the Boycott is lead by people who openly deny the existence of a Jewish state in any part of middle east.
Nothing less than destruction of the Jewish nation is taken as an option. For them Petah Tikva and Rishon LeZion are "illegal Jewish settlements". You might deny it all You want but Jews learned to believe what their enemies say.and write...especially when it's so evident and shouted in the open.
From the river to the sea!...Haybar Haybar ya'Jews!...slit the throats of Zionists!...No Jewish state!
It's war on Jews.
Except it is not. You are trying to create a very restricted argument that is essentially dishonest and applies only to Jews.
Apartheid was a program specific to South Africa. Yes or no? Other nations in Africa had similar cultures but only South Africa had it rigidly set in a legal framework. Using your argument, in order to oppose it we must find a definition that applies globally otherwise opposition is racism towards South African Whites.
You are wanting to argue international law but this is not about international law or at any rate that is not the argument I am making.
You can not simultaneously make the argument that opposing Israel's settlement program is unique to the Jewish people AND support a program that is in itself unique to the Jewish people. Settlements are by far uniquelly Jewish with a sprinkling of others moving in. No one has been able provide any examples of legal Arab Israeli settlements in Area C.
The definition of settler and settlements is what the people involved in the movement defined, not some newly revised definition to try and pretend it is common around the world. It is a religious movement unique to the Jewish people.
Originally posted by Coyote
Israel is here to stay. It is an established state for Jewish people. It is not going anywhere.
Except it is not. You are trying to create a very restricted argument that is essentially dishonest and applies only to Jews.
Apartheid was a program specific to South Africa. Yes or no? Other nations in Africa had similar cultures but only South Africa had it rigidly set in a legal framework. Using your argument, in order to oppose it we must find a definition that applies globally otherwise opposition is racism towards South African Whites.
You are wanting to argue international law but this is not about international law or at any rate that is not the argument I am making.
You can not simultaneously make the argument that opposing Israel's settlement program is unique to the Jewish people AND support a program that is in itself unique to the Jewish people. Settlements are by far uniquelly Jewish with a sprinkling of others moving in. No one has been able provide any examples of legal Arab Israeli settlements in Area C.
The definition of settler and settlements is what the people involved in the movement defined, not some newly revised definition to try and pretend it is common around the world. It is a religious movement unique to the Jewish people.
So is it about the Jews or is it not about the Jews? You say on the one hand that "it is not" and then on the other that it is a "movement unique to the Jews". Which is it?
You gave the example of SA apartheid (and while I am loathe to compare Israel to apartheid because it is a demonization, I'll bite). You immediately gave the REASON why SA apartheid could be differentiated from social segregation in other parts of the world. You were able to articulate the objective facts. You conveyed an objective standard which could be applied universally -- the standard of rigedly set legal framework. I'm asking you to apply that same standard in this case; to do the same for the disputed territories in Area C. What is the REASON why the Jewish people's "settlements" are differentiated from all other settlements in the world? What are the objective facts? What is the standard which can be applied universally?
(COMMENT)[ And....for the newest fantasy about Jews......]
A BDS supporter, Kollab has also defended the Hamas terror group and said that “jewish settlers in palestine are the descendants of the nazis.”
(full article online)
Ohio hospital condemns ex-resident who said she would give Jews ‘the wrong meds’
[ The human imagination against Jews is clearly boundless ]
It is the Palestinian Education System [ StupidRE: Boycott Israel
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,
We (as in a recommendation) should not be too astonished about this. Every significant population has members that exhibit mental health conditions → observable disorders in mood, as well as, a loss in cognitive abilities and disturbing (if not criminal) social behavior. The population of nationals that are immediately adjacent to Israel seems to have more than their share.
(COMMENT)[ And....for the newest fantasy about Jews......]
A BDS supporter, Kollab has also defended the Hamas terror group and said that “jewish settlers in palestine are the descendants of the nazis.”
(full article online)
Ohio hospital condemns ex-resident who said she would give Jews ‘the wrong meds’
[ The human imagination against Jews is clearly boundless ]
It is politically interesting that the Arab Palestinians of the West Bank and Gaza Strip have an unusually disproportionate number of those that are showing signs they are delusional, holding sadness, disappointment and excessive anxieties that when combined with the realities of the situation respond in violent and behavior involving physical force intended to injure or kill Jews.
The question might be, is there some form of environmental contamination that or other substance exposure that induces this symptomatic result of sociopathic activity.
Most Respectfully
R