Constitutional Conservatives Support Open Borders

article IV section 4

The United States shall guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government, and shall protect each of them against invasion; and on application of the legislature, or of the executive (when the legislature cannot be convened) against domestic violence.
A person getting off a boat is not invading. That' s just nonsense.

how do you know that
That's a clown question, bro.
 
How about EOs have zero to do with the Constitution? ANd then just go from there.
To where? Who gives a shit? There are plenty of powers that aren't written in the Constitution. That doesn't make them unlawful or unConstitutional.



BULLSHIT.

Fedgov's powers are specifically enumerated, if they are not they the authority has been USURPED.

I understand that the fascists, socialists, the berners don't have a problem with that.

Freedom loving Americans, on the other hand. must be very very concerned.


.
Yeah, well, if you were going to ask for an example I would point to the Federal Income Tax but you don't believe that's legal, either.

Hard to argue with an anarchist. They don't think the government should regulate a thing.
Income tax required a specific Constitutional amendment.
So your point is a failure.
 
Anyone styling himself a constitutional conservative must support open borders. Those who do not are merely statists as the fed.gov has no power to regulate borders.

This again.

Rab. What are you doing?
Poiinting out that the gov't has no business regulating immigration. Conservatism means free movement of labor and capital. Statists are anti immigration. If anyone proposed doing to American citizens what the anti immigration people want to do to immigrants they would be denounced as Nazis.
 
article IV section 4

The United States shall guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government, and shall protect each of them against invasion; and on application of the legislature, or of the executive (when the legislature cannot be convened) against domestic violence.
A person getting off a boat is not invading. That' s just nonsense.

how do you know that
That's a clown question, bro.


no not really

not with the likes of isis and such wanting to infiltrate our society
 
article IV section 4

The United States shall guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government, and shall protect each of them against invasion; and on application of the legislature, or of the executive (when the legislature cannot be convened) against domestic violence.
A person getting off a boat is not invading. That' s just nonsense.

how do you know that
That's a clown question, bro.


no not really

not with the likes of isis and such wanting to infiltrate our society
You think they havent already? You think some stupid border rules are going to stop that? IN any case we have millions of Muslims here already, many born here. They dont need to come across the border.
 
How about EOs have zero to do with the Constitution? ANd then just go from there.
To where? Who gives a shit? There are plenty of powers that aren't written in the Constitution. That doesn't make them unlawful or unConstitutional.



BULLSHIT.

Fedgov's powers are specifically enumerated, if they are not they the authority has been USURPED.

I understand that the fascists, socialists, the berners don't have a problem with that.

Freedom loving Americans, on the other hand. must be very very concerned.


.
Yeah, well, if you were going to ask for an example I would point to the Federal Income Tax but you don't believe that's legal, either.

Hard to argue with an anarchist. They don't think the government should regulate a thing.
Income tax required a specific Constitutional amendment.
So your point is a failure.
That was the solution to it not being a power enumerated in the Constitution.

You really suck at this.
 
Anyone styling himself a constitutional conservative must support open borders. Those who do not are merely statists as the fed.gov has no power to regulate borders.
You are arguing "strict constructionism" theory and claiming it to be Constitutional Conservatism. :cuckoo:
 
Suck my rod you stupid racist son-of-a-bitch , Listen cocksucker ,

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS


.

:lmao:


Suck my rod you stupid racist son-of-a-bitch , Listen cocksucker ,

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS

Mrs. Tough Libtard-Wingnut. I hyphenated your name for ya. I know how you douches like that. :coffee:


Quit stonewalling you miserable piece of shit

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS

And researching this proves what now? I doubt it'd have any bearing on my views of modern day immigration law enforcement or the lack thereof.


Excuse me shit for brains, how did "modern day immigration law" become modern without a Constitutional (1787) Amendment granting fedgov the authority to interdict, detain and deport?


.


/
 
4. _Resolved_, That alien friends are under the jurisdiction and protection of the laws of the State wherein they are: that no power over them has been delegated to the United States, nor prohibited to the individual States, distinct from their power over citizens. And it being true as a general principle, and one of the amendments to the Constitution having also declared, that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people," the act of the Congress of the United States, passed on the -- day of July, 1798, intituled "An Act concerning aliens," which assumes powers over alien friends, not delegated by the Constitution, is not law, but is altogether void, and of no force."


Thomas Jefferson
Using the Kentucky Resolution is laughable at best, it holds no legal weight. All you are doing is presenting the opinion of someone and claiming it as fact.

Madison hoped that other states would register their opposition to the Alien and Sedition Acts as beyond the powers given to Congress. The Kentucky Resolutions, authored by Jefferson, went further than Madison's Virginia Resolution and asserted that states had the power to nullify unconstitutional federal laws.
Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions - Bill of Rights Institute

Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency"


.
 
4. _Resolved_, That alien friends are under the jurisdiction and protection of the laws of the State wherein they are: that no power over them has been delegated to the United States, nor prohibited to the individual States, distinct from their power over citizens. And it being true as a general principle, and one of the amendments to the Constitution having also declared, that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people," the act of the Congress of the United States, passed on the -- day of July, 1798, intituled "An Act concerning aliens," which assumes powers over alien friends, not delegated by the Constitution, is not law, but is altogether void, and of no force."


Thomas Jefferson
Using the Kentucky Resolution is laughable at best, it holds no legal weight. All you are doing is presenting the opinion of someone and claiming it as fact.

Madison hoped that other states would register their opposition to the Alien and Sedition Acts as beyond the powers given to Congress. The Kentucky Resolutions, authored by Jefferson, went further than Madison's Virginia Resolution and asserted that states had the power to nullify unconstitutional federal laws.
Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions - Bill of Rights Institute

Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency".
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.
 
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4. _Resolved_, That alien friends are under the jurisdiction and protection of the laws of the State wherein they are: that no power over them has been delegated to the United States, nor prohibited to the individual States, distinct from their power over citizens. And it being true as a general principle, and one of the amendments to the Constitution having also declared, that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people," the act of the Congress of the United States, passed on the -- day of July, 1798, intituled "An Act concerning aliens," which assumes powers over alien friends, not delegated by the Constitution, is not law, but is altogether void, and of no force."


Thomas Jefferson
Using the Kentucky Resolution is laughable at best, it holds no legal weight. All you are doing is presenting the opinion of someone and claiming it as fact.

Madison hoped that other states would register their opposition to the Alien and Sedition Acts as beyond the powers given to Congress. The Kentucky Resolutions, authored by Jefferson, went further than Madison's Virginia Resolution and asserted that states had the power to nullify unconstitutional federal laws.
Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions - Bill of Rights Institute

Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency".
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.


HUH?

Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800.

The way it works here in these US of A - I assume you are a FOREIGNER hence the reason for your IGNORANCE -

The Constitution (1787) specifically authorizes fedgov to perform certain acts

Congress then acts as CONSTITUTIONALLY authorized


.
 
4. _Resolved_, That alien friends are under the jurisdiction and protection of the laws of the State wherein they are: that no power over them has been delegated to the United States, nor prohibited to the individual States, distinct from their power over citizens. And it being true as a general principle, and one of the amendments to the Constitution having also declared, that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people," the act of the Congress of the United States, passed on the -- day of July, 1798, intituled "An Act concerning aliens," which assumes powers over alien friends, not delegated by the Constitution, is not law, but is altogether void, and of no force."


Thomas Jefferson
Using the Kentucky Resolution is laughable at best, it holds no legal weight. All you are doing is presenting the opinion of someone and claiming it as fact.

Madison hoped that other states would register their opposition to the Alien and Sedition Acts as beyond the powers given to Congress. The Kentucky Resolutions, authored by Jefferson, went further than Madison's Virginia Resolution and asserted that states had the power to nullify unconstitutional federal laws.
Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions - Bill of Rights Institute

Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency".
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.


HUH?

Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800.

The way it works here in these US of A - I assume you are a FOREIGNER hence the reason for your IGNORANCE -

The Constitution (1787) specifically authorizes fedgov to perform certain acts

Congress then acts as CONSTITUTIONALLY authorized.
You've got to be one of the dumbest fucks here. You are claiming through "strict constructionism" that the US isn't even a sovereign nation. If you were a US Citizen you should at the very least know basic US history. Your interpretation of constitutional theory is that of a judicial activist, specifically Justice Hugo Black. Just because the US had relatively open immigration prior to the CEA, doesn't mean the Federal Govt didn't have Plenary Power over immigration.

You want me to Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800 The Alien Enemies Act of 1798 is still in effect. Congress passed the 1819 Manifest of Immigrants Act which regulated incoming immigrants. In 1875 Congress passed the Page Act which allowed further exclusion of immigrants. There are at least 3 easy ones for you.
 
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Suck my rod you stupid racist son-of-a-bitch , Listen cocksucker ,

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS

Mrs. Tough Libtard-Wingnut. I hyphenated your name for ya. I know how you douches like that. :coffee:


Quit stonewalling you miserable piece of shit

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS

And researching this proves what now? I doubt it'd have any bearing on my views of modern day immigration law enforcement or the lack thereof.


Excuse me shit for brains, how did "modern day immigration law" become modern without a Constitutional (1787) Amendment granting fedgov the authority to interdict, detain and deport?
/
4. _Resolved_, That alien friends are under the jurisdiction and protection of the laws of the State wherein they are: that no power over them has been delegated to the United States, nor prohibited to the individual States, distinct from their power over citizens. And it being true as a general principle, and one of the amendments to the Constitution having also declared, that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people," the act of the Congress of the United States, passed on the -- day of July, 1798, intituled "An Act concerning aliens," which assumes powers over alien friends, not delegated by the Constitution, is not law, but is altogether void, and of no force."


Thomas Jefferson
Using the Kentucky Resolution is laughable at best, it holds no legal weight. All you are doing is presenting the opinion of someone and claiming it as fact.

Madison hoped that other states would register their opposition to the Alien and Sedition Acts as beyond the powers given to Congress. The Kentucky Resolutions, authored by Jefferson, went further than Madison's Virginia Resolution and asserted that states had the power to nullify unconstitutional federal laws.
Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions - Bill of Rights Institute

Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency".
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.


HUH?

Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800.

The way it works here in these US of A - I assume you are a FOREIGNER hence the reason for your IGNORANCE -

The Constitution (1787) specifically authorizes fedgov to perform certain acts

Congress then acts as CONSTITUTIONALLY authorized.
You've got to be one of the dumbest fucks here. You are claiming through "strict constructionism" that the US isn't even a sovereign nation. If you were a US Citizen you should at the very least know basic US history. Your interpretation of constitutional theory is that of a judicial activist, specifically Justice Hugo Black. Just because the US had relatively open immigration prior to the CEA, doesn't mean the Federal Govt didn't have Plenary Power over immigration.


Listen you miserable stupid fuck

The states did not form a nation

they merely created a federal government with LIMITED , specifically enumerated powers , mostly dealing with foreign affairs .

The STATES were sovereign and THEY retained the power to confer their citizenship upon whomever.

.
 
Mrs. Tough Libtard-Wingnut. I hyphenated your name for ya. I know how you douches like that. :coffee:


Quit stonewalling you miserable piece of shit

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS

And researching this proves what now? I doubt it'd have any bearing on my views of modern day immigration law enforcement or the lack thereof.


Excuse me shit for brains, how did "modern day immigration law" become modern without a Constitutional (1787) Amendment granting fedgov the authority to interdict, detain and deport?
/
Using the Kentucky Resolution is laughable at best, it holds no legal weight. All you are doing is presenting the opinion of someone and claiming it as fact.

Madison hoped that other states would register their opposition to the Alien and Sedition Acts as beyond the powers given to Congress. The Kentucky Resolutions, authored by Jefferson, went further than Madison's Virginia Resolution and asserted that states had the power to nullify unconstitutional federal laws.
Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions - Bill of Rights Institute

Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency".
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.


HUH?

Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800.

The way it works here in these US of A - I assume you are a FOREIGNER hence the reason for your IGNORANCE -

The Constitution (1787) specifically authorizes fedgov to perform certain acts

Congress then acts as CONSTITUTIONALLY authorized.
You've got to be one of the dumbest fucks here. You are claiming through "strict constructionism" that the US isn't even a sovereign nation. If you were a US Citizen you should at the very least know basic US history. Your interpretation of constitutional theory is that of a judicial activist, specifically Justice Hugo Black. Just because the US had relatively open immigration prior to the CEA, doesn't mean the Federal Govt didn't have Plenary Power over immigration.


Listen you miserable stupid fuck

The states did not form a nation

they merely created a federal government with LIMITED , specifically enumerated powers , mostly dealing with foreign affairs .

The STATES were sovereign and THEY retained the power to confer their citizenship upon whomever..
The states didn't form a nation? You really are the dumbest fuck on here, you're a PR which explains it. Does July 4th, 1776 ring a bell? The US Constitution created a more perfect Union. The US Constitution recognized US Citizens. The Privileges and Immunities Clause was brought over from the Articles of Confederation, Article 4. The citizen of one state was now a citizen recognized in all the states.
It is true, every person, and every class and description of
persons, who were at the time of the adoption of the
Constitution recognized as citizens in the several States,
became also citizens of this new political body; but none
other; it was formed by them, and for them and their
posterity, but for no one else. And the personal rights and
privileges guarantied [sic] to citizens of this new
sovereignty were intended to embrace those only who were
then members of the several state communities, or who should
afterwards, by birthright or otherwise, become members,

according to the provisions of the Constitution and the
principles on which it was founded.

[Dred Scott v. Sandford, 19 How. 393, 404 (1856)]
 
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Another truism meme....

qZ8CtHx.jpg
 
Quit stonewalling you miserable piece of shit

a link was provided showing that Thomas Jefferson, our 3rd Prez and Founding Father opposed the 1798 Immigration Act - Congress allowed it expired in 1800 and there were NO IMMIGRATION Laws until a RACIST SCOTUS declared that because the Chinese wanted to work in the California gold mines thereby upsetting the Aryan Brotherhood that there was "an emergency" requiring the motherfuckers to act a a mini-legislature and amending the Constitution,

REBUT and/or REFUTE with FACTS

And researching this proves what now? I doubt it'd have any bearing on my views of modern day immigration law enforcement or the lack thereof.


Excuse me shit for brains, how did "modern day immigration law" become modern without a Constitutional (1787) Amendment granting fedgov the authority to interdict, detain and deport?
/
Dingle Berry

It is true that in the year 2016 Thomas Jefferson , our Founding Father and 3rd president is considered by the socialists berners, and fascists , to be a piece of shit and his opinion holds no water.

But the historical fact is that after he protested Congress let the 1798 immigration law EXPIRED in 1800.

We had NO IMMIGRATION LAW from 1800 until the mid 1890's when RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. That , shithead, constituted a fucking "emergency".
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.


HUH?

Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800.

The way it works here in these US of A - I assume you are a FOREIGNER hence the reason for your IGNORANCE -

The Constitution (1787) specifically authorizes fedgov to perform certain acts

Congress then acts as CONSTITUTIONALLY authorized.
You've got to be one of the dumbest fucks here. You are claiming through "strict constructionism" that the US isn't even a sovereign nation. If you were a US Citizen you should at the very least know basic US history. Your interpretation of constitutional theory is that of a judicial activist, specifically Justice Hugo Black. Just because the US had relatively open immigration prior to the CEA, doesn't mean the Federal Govt didn't have Plenary Power over immigration.


Listen you miserable stupid fuck

The states did not form a nation

they merely created a federal government with LIMITED , specifically enumerated powers , mostly dealing with foreign affairs .

The STATES were sovereign and THEY retained the power to confer their citizenship upon whomever..
The states didn't form a nation? You really are the dumbest fuck on here, you're a PR which explains it. Does July 4th, 1776 ring a bell? The US Constitution created a more perfect Union. The US Constitution recognized US Citizens, and states were still allowed for the time being to create their own citizens. The Privileges and Immunities Clause was brought over from the Articles of Confederation, Article 4. The citizen of one state was now a citizen recognized in all the states.


Listen cocksucker, you are a glutton for punishment

Let the second class citizen from PR teach you Constitutional Law

"That it will be a federal and not a national act, as these terms are understood by the objectors; the act of the people, as forming so many independent States, not as forming one aggregate nation, is obvious from this single consideration, that it is to result neither from the decision of a MAJORITY of the people of the Union, nor from that of a MAJORITY of the States. It must result from the UNANIMOUS assent of the several States that are parties to it, differing no otherwise from their ordinary assent than in its being expressed, not by the legislative authority, but by that of the people themselves. Were the people regarded in this transaction as forming one nation, the will of the majority of the whole people of the United States would bind the minority, in the same manner as the majority in each State must bind the minority; and the will of the majority must be determined either by a comparison of the individual votes, or by considering the will of the majority of the States as evidence of the will of a majority of the people of the United States. Neither of these rules have been adopted. Each State, in ratifying the Constitution, is considered as a sovereign body, independent of all others, and only to be bound by its own voluntary act. In this relation, then, the new Constitution will, if established, be a FEDERAL, and not a NATIONAL constitution."

James Madison

The Father of the US Constitution


.
 
And researching this proves what now? I doubt it'd have any bearing on my views of modern day immigration law enforcement or the lack thereof.


Excuse me shit for brains, how did "modern day immigration law" become modern without a Constitutional (1787) Amendment granting fedgov the authority to interdict, detain and deport?
/
Three of the four Acts of the Alien and Sedition Acts were allowed to expire. We have always had immigration law, since prior to the signing of the USC. The Alien Enemies Act is still in effect today.

How did RACIST "justices" USURPED the power because the Chinese wanted to work in California's gold mines thereby pissing off the Aryan Brotherhood. When the CEA was done through Congress?

Your knowledge of basic US History is lacking at best. Just because we had relatively free and open immigration in the early years, that doesn't mean we didn't have immigration laws, nor does it mean the Feds didn't have authority over immigration.


HUH?

Identify the FEDERAL immigration Law in effect after 1800.

The way it works here in these US of A - I assume you are a FOREIGNER hence the reason for your IGNORANCE -

The Constitution (1787) specifically authorizes fedgov to perform certain acts

Congress then acts as CONSTITUTIONALLY authorized.
You've got to be one of the dumbest fucks here. You are claiming through "strict constructionism" that the US isn't even a sovereign nation. If you were a US Citizen you should at the very least know basic US history. Your interpretation of constitutional theory is that of a judicial activist, specifically Justice Hugo Black. Just because the US had relatively open immigration prior to the CEA, doesn't mean the Federal Govt didn't have Plenary Power over immigration.


Listen you miserable stupid fuck

The states did not form a nation

they merely created a federal government with LIMITED , specifically enumerated powers , mostly dealing with foreign affairs .

The STATES were sovereign and THEY retained the power to confer their citizenship upon whomever..
The states didn't form a nation? You really are the dumbest fuck on here, you're a PR which explains it. Does July 4th, 1776 ring a bell? The US Constitution created a more perfect Union. The US Constitution recognized US Citizens, and states were still allowed for the time being to create their own citizens. The Privileges and Immunities Clause was brought over from the Articles of Confederation, Article 4. The citizen of one state was now a citizen recognized in all the states.


Listen cocksucker, you are a glutton for punishment

Let the second class citizen from PR teach you Constitutional Law

"That it will be a federal and not a national act, as these terms are understood by the objectors; the act of the people, as forming so many independent States, not as forming one aggregate nation, is obvious from this single consideration, that it is to result neither from the decision of a MAJORITY of the people of the Union, nor from that of a MAJORITY of the States. It must result from the UNANIMOUS assent of the several States that are parties to it, differing no otherwise from their ordinary assent than in its being expressed, not by the legislative authority, but by that of the people themselves. Were the people regarded in this transaction as forming one nation, the will of the majority of the whole people of the United States would bind the minority, in the same manner as the majority in each State must bind the minority; and the will of the majority must be determined either by a comparison of the individual votes, or by considering the will of the majority of the States as evidence of the will of a majority of the people of the United States. Neither of these rules have been adopted. Each State, in ratifying the Constitution, is considered as a sovereign body, independent of all others, and only to be bound by its own voluntary act. In this relation, then, the new Constitution will, if established, be a FEDERAL, and not a NATIONAL constitution."

James Madison

The Father of the US Constitution


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Federalist 39 is discussing the implementation of a Republican form of Govt you fucking idiot. Teach me Constitutional Law? You couldn't teach a dog to not piss on your leg. SMFH

The last paragraph of that document -
The proposed Constitution, therefore, is, in strictness, neither a national nor a federal Constitution, but a composition of both. In its foundation it is federal, not national; in the sources from which the ordinary powers of the government are drawn, it is partly federal and partly national; in the operation of these powers, it is national, not federal; in the extent of them, again, it is federal, not national; and, finally, in the authoritative mode of introducing amendments, it is neither wholly federal nor wholly national.

PUBLIUS.
 
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