Zoom-boing
Platinum Member
- Oct 30, 2008
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So the internet wasn't under this ruling until the other day and now it is being treated just like the following:
"Until the 1980s in the United States, the term "telephone company" was synonymous with American Telephone & Telegraph. AT&T controlled nearly all aspects of the telephone business. Its regional subsidiaries, known as "Baby Bells," were regulated monopolies, holding exclusive rights to operate in specific areas. The Federal Communications Commission regulated rates on long-distance calls between states, while state regulators had to approve rates for local and in-state long-distance calls.
Government regulation was justified on the theory that telephone companies, like electric utilities, were natural monopolies. Competition, which was assumed to require stringing multiple wires across the countryside, was seen as wasteful and inefficient. That thinking changed beginning around the 1970s, as sweeping technological developments promised rapid advances in telecommunications. Independent companies asserted that they could, indeed, compete with AT&T. But they said the telephone monopoly effectively shut them out by refusing to allow them to interconnect with its massive network."
Deregulating Telecommunications
(more at link)
If this rule is so good, why did the FCC deregulate AT&T?
ATT wasn't dregulated. It was broken up. And that occurred partially because the technology had advanced that made it possible to allow other industries to compete over the same medium, and partially because of anti-trust lawsuits that ultimately ended in the Supreme Court. But what does that have to do with the net neutrality regulations?
It was deregulated.
The internet has now been placed under the original set of terms that AT&T was way back when.
If it was so great, why didn't they just leave AT&T under those terms?
What do you think will happen with the internet now that it's placed under those 1934 rules?