SobieskiSavedEurope
Gold Member
- Banned
- #41
You claim that Carthaginians, and Phoenicians had conquered Africa?
They hardly touched the bulk of it.
Never said they conquered it. I said they harvested it for its raw materials and enslaved the people. MOST of mankind lives within a few miles of the oceans of the world. It is only with the recent inventions of trains and cars etc. that mankind has moved into the interior of the various continents of the world.
Much of the slavery came from Africans trading their slaves to Arabs, or Europeans.
As for resources I'd like to see a source for widespread non-Sub-Saharan influences before the Scramble for Africa?
Which merely reinforces my point. Thank you. The only reason why white Europeans have higher IQs now is because they have benefited from over a century of good nutrition. That's it. White people are not inherently smarter. They are just fed better.
While I certainly don't deny that environment including malnutrition impacts IQ.
There's no reason to believe Communist countries with higher levels of malnutrition would have scored higher IQ's than African Americans.
Furthermore according to this study Malnourished Koreans scored a 102 IQ, while well nourished Koreans scored a 112 IQ.
(Sure that's a sizable 10 point IQ gap, but it still beats the IQ of much of the Western Whites ironically)
The Handbook of International Adoption Medicine
They started from a higher point than the Africans did, and then drove their collective IQ's down, that's what happens under socialism, and now, the IQ levels are coming back up. It takes time for nourishment to work its magic.
China was poorer than Africa as a collective in Per Capita Income GDP in 1973.
So, how do you figure they started at a higher point?
Especially in comparison to African Americans who had benefits of living in the U.S.A?