Silhouette
Gold Member
- Jul 15, 2013
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Why would there NEED to be any indication from the Court? What is the Court doing indicating ANYTHING about this fundamental change to the bedrock of American society before BOTH sides are Heard???It is a slipper slope fallacy. As there's been no indication from the court that the logic of the Windsor ruling would apply to incest, or bestiality, or pedophilia, or polygamy, or any of the other strawmen that have been raised in opposition to gay marriage.
If a precedent is set where the majority can no longer reject a lifestyle mainstreaming itself using the vehicle of marriage, how on EARTH would you forbid any other lifestyle if not using the majority rule? Surely you understand what "equality" means?